LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

Monthly Archives: December 2014

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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1. What is true of the Foreign Commerce Clause in the context of the United States and foreign affairs?

  • It does not encompass state and local laws.
  • It gives the federal government exclusive power over foreign affairs.
  • It prohibits multilateral treaties.
  • It authorizes Congress to regulate commerce with foreign nations. 

2. The country of Elamia has added a new feature to its constitution. This feature gives power to the central government to enter into treaties with foreign countries. It does not give this power to state governments. In addition, this feature states that any local law that goes against a centrally-formed treaty will be canceled. Which part of the U.S. Constitution does Elamia’s new constitutional feature closely resemble?

  • Treaty Clause
  • Foreign Commerce Clause
  • Bilateral Treaty Clause
  • North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) 

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3. In the context of the United States and foreign affairs, treaties _____.

  • can only be formed between two nations
  • can only be formed only if sponsored by international organizations
  • are considered equal to lawmaking at the international level
  • can be formed even by local governments 

4. The International Court of Justice _____.

  • hears cases related to individuals and businesses
  • hears cases involving nations
  • is composed of five judges
  • is located in Geneva 

5. What is true in the context of the European Union (EU)?

  • The European Union Commission is independent of its member nations.
  • The Council of Ministers is composed of representatives from only five member countries.
  • All major decisions of the Council of Ministers require unanimity and no changes in the treaty are made based only on a majority vote.
  • All EU member countries have voted to use the euro. 

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6. The World Trade Organization (WTO) implements various rounds of negotiations among its membership. Through these rounds, it aims to achieve major reform of the international trading system. What is the fundamental objective of the Doha Round of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

  • To increase trade barriers
  • To resolve trade disputes arising from contracts
  • To improve trade prospects of developing countries
  • To issue panel reports in dispute cases 

7. What is the correct statement in the context of Hindu law?

  • Anglo-Hindu law was adopted in India, post its independence.
  • Classical Hindu Law rests on the works of private scholars.
  • Hindu law is not codified in any country.
  • Hindu law is predominantly based on court decisions. 

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8. Which international religious law is based on the ideology and theology of the Torah?

  • Islamic law
  • Jewish law
  • Hindu law
  • Christian law 

9. Ayub is an owner of a business that deals with the manufacture and sale of silk rugs. According to Islamic law, which of the following would most likely apply to Ayub, if riba was prohibited?

  • Ayub would be able to pay interest on loans.
  • Ayub would not be able to make any profits from the sale of his rugs.
  • Ayub would not be allowed to make any unjustified profits.
  • Ayub would not be permitted to earn profits from any services provided by him. 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check.The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify an accurate statement about the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).

  • It prohibits the disclosure of nutrition information on food labels.
  • It only covers the quality of actual products and does not encompass packaging.
  • It prohibits the shipment, distribution, or sale of adulterated food.
  • It does not place liability on manufacturers or distributors for deceptive labelling. 

2. Which product is exempt from Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulation of cosmetics?

  • Household soap
  • Facial cleanser
  • Lip color
  • Eye shadow 

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3. Glitter is a clothing store advertising a week-long sale featuring low-price summer merchandise. Amy visits the store on the second day of the sale to buy discounted clothing. However, the store has very few of the low-price clothes remaining. When Amy inquires about the sale, she is, instead, directed to a section of very expensive clothing that is not on sale. Feeling pressurized by the salesperson to buy some of the expensive clothes, Amy ends up spending a lot of money at the store. What type of deceptive business practice is best illustrated in the scenario?

  • Credit and debt
  • Trade libel
  • Door-to-door sales
  • Bait and switch 

4. What is an environmental impact statement most likely to contain?

  • Guidelines for maintaining environmental standards for state governments
  • A cost-benefit analysis of a proposed federal action that might affect the environment
  • Annual environmental reports provided by state governments
  • Conservation proposals made by environmental experts outside the government 

5. Identify the federal act that was enacted to regulate the disposal of new hazardous wastes and empowers the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to regulate facilities that generate, treat, store, transport, and dispose hazardous wastes.

  • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
  • Toxic Substances Control Act
  • National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
  • Nuclear Waste Policy Act 

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6. What is a true statement in the context of environmental laws?

  • The Clean Air Act encompasses only stationary sources of pollution and not automobiles.
  • States are responsible for the enforcement of air quality standards even though the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) sets the standards.
  • The primary task of enforcing the provisions of the Clean Water Act rests with the federal government and not state governments.
  • The federal Clean Water Act does not encompass the maintenance of wetlands. 

7. What is true of the per se rule according to Section 1 of the Sherman Act?

  • It holds that even reasonable restraints violate Section 1 of the Sherman Act.
  • It applies to restraints that are intrinsically anticompetitive.
  • It applies to cases where restraints have both pro- and anticompetitive effects.
  • It applies to cases where justifications and evidence can be considered to evaluate restraints. 

8. Envy, Bling, and Pattern are three established and well-known clothing manufacturers and sellers. They decide not to sell their clothes to Embellish, a clothing retail store. Which form of horizontal restraint does this scenario best exemplify?

  • Price fixing
  • Division of markets
  • Group boycotts
  • Conscious parallelisms 

9. Some forms of business and activities like labor unions and agricultural cooperatives are expressly exempt from the reach of antitrust laws in the rules enacted by Congress. What type of exemptions are these?

  • Statutory exemptions
  • Implied exemptions
  • State action exemptions
  • Organization exemptions 

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10. When is a court likely to apply the piercing the corporate veil doctrine?

  • When a corporation is not generating adequate profits because of a drop in sales
  • When a shareholder has been found to be misusing corporate assets
  • When shareholders are not adequately participating in the management of the corporation
  • When an employee has violated corporation rules 

11. What statement is true in the context of the board of directors of a corporation?

  • All members of the board should be officers of the corporation.
  • All members of the board should have the same set of specific qualifications.
  • Officers of other corporations can be elected as directors of the board.
  • Directors of the board should be residents of the state in which the corporation was incorporated. 

12. Riya is a corporate officer as well as a senior academic author at Derive Inc., a content management company. The company develops question banks and learning material for students. Riya, without permission from the company, starts her own content management company. Derive then recovers damages and profits from Riya. Which act of disloyalty does this scenario best exemplify in the context of fiduciary duties?

  • Making a secret profit
  • Usurping a corporate opportunity
  • Self-dealing
  • Competing with the corporation 

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13.What step can food manufacturers and processors take to avoid legal risks associated with the Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA)?

  • Exclude dietary information on packaging
  • Provide information about all the nutrients on packaging
  • Provide only point-of-purchase nutrition information
  • Exclude information about serving size on packaging 

14. According to Section 2 of the Clayton Act, in which of these scenarios is a seller most likely to face a legal risk?

  • Jeremy, a seller, uses price discrimination to meet a competitor’s price.
  • Alex, a seller, sells similar quality products to two customers at different prices around the same time.
  • Marcos, a seller, increases product prices because of increased costs of production and packaging.
  • Chang, a seller, offers a service to a particular customer for a reduced price. 

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15. What will help chemical industries avoid legal risks in the context of environmental laws?

  • Using special labeling for toxic substances
  • Avoiding testing of new chemicals
  • Meeting only the standards that are economically feasible
  • Adopting only technologically feasible disposal standards 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify the true statement about principal-agent and employer-employee agency relationships.

  • The employee in an employer-employee relationship is authorized to act on behalf of the employer in all business situations.
  • The principal in a principal-agent relationship has no authority over contracts made by the agent.
  • The employee in an employer-employee relationship can sign contracts on behalf of the employer.
  • The agent in a principal-agent relationship is authorized to act on behalf of the principal. 

2. In certain types of agencies, the parties involved do not sign a formal contract. However, it can be inferred from their conduct, that they are part of the agency. What is this kind of agency known as?

  • Implied agency
  • Express agency
  • Agency by ratification
  • Agency by contract 

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3. Beta Corp. and Woodrow LLC. have formed an agency. Both parties have agreed to the terms on which the agency will operate, and they have signed a contract. According to the terms of the contract, Woodrow, the agent, is authorized to act on behalf of Beta. Identify the type of agency illustrated in the scenario.

  • Agency by ratification
  • Express agency
  • Implied agency
  • Apparent agency 

4. What is true about disparate-treatment discrimination?

  • It involves discrimination against an entire protected class.
  • It involves discrimination against an individual belonging to a protected class. It refers to discrimination against an individual who
  • does not belong to a protected class or minority.
  • It occurs when a company does not follow racially neutral employment practices. 

5. What is true about color discrimination?

  • It can be justified by a bona fide occupational qualification.
  • It is essentially the same as discrimination based on race.
  • It is covered under Title VII.
  • It is prohibited but victims cannot recover damages even if discrimination is proved. 

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6. Identify the true statement about law in the United States, in the context of gender discrimination.

  • The laws that prohibit gender discrimination apply only to women.
  • The law does not specifically prohibit discrimination based on sexual orientation.
  • The law prohibits employment discrimination based on pregnancy.
  • The laws against gender discrimination do not prohibit quid pro quo sexual discrimination. 

7. Which of the following remedies can be granted by courts for violations of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

  • Reasonable attorney’s fees to the plaintiff
  • Reduction of salaries for all other employees in the plaintiff’s company
  • Unlimited power to the plaintiff to hire and terminate other employees in the company
  • Punitive damages in the amount requested by the plaintiff 

8. What remedy is a court likely to grant an employee if his or her employer is found to have violated the Equal Pay Act?

  • The employer will be required to lower the wages of other employees to bring in uniformity.
  • The employee will be eligible for a pay hike but will not be able to recover back pay.
  • The employee will be able to recover damages but will not be able to have his or her wages increased.
  • The employee will be able to recover back pay as well as liquidated damages. 

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9. What is true about the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)?

  • It enables plaintiffs to recover damages, even where bona fide occupational qualifications have been shown by their employers.
  • It allows employers to use employment advertisements that discriminate against applicants on the basis of age.
  • It ensures the reinstatement of plaintiffs, if they have been terminated on the basis of age.
  • It ensures that the wages of other employees are lowered. 

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About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows: 

 LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

 

 

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

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1. What is true about the acceptance of a contract?

  • It is effective only once it has reached the offeror, whether or not it has been properly dispatched by the offeree.
  • It must not support the mirror image rule.
  • It must be an unequivocal acceptance, without conditions or exceptions.
  • It cannot be expressed with silence, even if the offeree has specified that silence means acceptance. 

2. Which element of a contract requires something of legal value to be provided in exchange for a promise?

  • Consideration
  • Objective intent
  • Agreement
  • Capacity 

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3. Jason, a 16-year old boy, enters into a contract with a businessperson to work on a construction project. According to the contract, Jason has to work long hours but will get paid a minimal amount because of his age. Jason, though unfamiliar with contracts, knows that the contract is not fair to him. He decides to cancel it. What gives Jason the right to void the contract?

  • Minor’s duty of restoration
  • Infancy doctrine
  • Adjudged insane
  • Covenant not to compete 

4. What will most likely happen when there is a material breach by one of the parties in a contract?

  • The breaching party will restate the express terms of the contract.
  • The contract will be discharged by both parties.
  • The nonbreaching party will terminate the contract and recover compensation.
  • The breaching party will affirm the contract and modify consideration terms. 

5. Venus LLC is a supplier for Synergy Corp. These companies have entered into a contract according to which, Venus will supply Synergy with a certain quantity of raw materials every month. In the month of May, Venus realizes that it cannot keep to the terms of the contract due to an unforeseeable worker strike. It informs Synergy of this delay much before the planned delivery date. What type of contract breach is illustrated in the scenario?

  • Minor breach
  • Anticipatory breach
  • Actual breach
  • Retrospective breach 

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6. Identify the type of damages that are awarded to a nonbreaching party when a breach of contract has occurred but has not resulted in any financial losses for the nonbreaching party.

  • Consequential damages
  • Penalty damages
  • Nominal damages
  • Special damages 

7. Identify the true statement about the legal protection of trade secrets.

  • The law allows individuals or companies the use of trade secrets discovered through reverse engineering.
  • The law does not place the obligation to protect trade secrets on the owners of the trade secrets.
  • The law mandates that all trade secrets be copyrighted.
  • The law does not categorize the stealing of a trade secret as a federal crime. 

8. What type of subject matter can be patented according to the U.S. federal government?

  • Scientific hypotheses and principles
  • Abstractions
  • Designs for a manufactured product
  • Obvious inventions 

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9. Caleb, a doctoral student, is sued by the author of a textbook for copyright infringement. The court rules that Caleb is not guilty since the content was used for the purpose of review in his research paper. In addition, he has written these paragraphs verbatim and placed them within quotes, citing appropriate references. What doctrine has the court most likely applied in this scenario?

  • Fair use doctrine
  • Res ipsa loquiter
  • Lanham doctrine
  • Misrepresentation doctrine 

10. Identify the true statement about personal property.

  • Personal property does not include items that are captured, purchased, or gifted.
  • Personal property can also be intangible.
  • Personal property includes only real property.
  • A single piece of personal property cannot be owned by two individuals at the same time. 

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11.Sandra is having her home renovated. Despite the specifications she has given the contractors, they add a door to separate her kitchen from her living room. Since Sandra likes the look, she does not ask them to change it. She also does not pay them extra, since the door was added by them, mistakenly. Which of the following terms best explains why Sandra has a right to the added feature without paying for it?

  • Accession
  • Confusion
  • Mislaid property
  • Gift inter vivos

12. Identify the situation in which two goods that look similar are commingled by owners who share ownership of the goods based on the proportion of their contributions.

  • Accession
  • Mislaid property
  • Possession
  • Confusion 

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13. What is true about real property, including land?

  • Real property includes property that is movable.
  • An owner of land has rights to the earth that lies beneath the land.
  • An owner of land owns the vegetation on the land only if the owner himself has cultivated the vegetation.
  • Real property does not encompass fixtures. 

14. Mary owns a piece of land and enjoys complete legal rights to the land, without any conditions or limitations. Her ownership does not end unless she transfers the land to a beneficiary. There are also no limitations on the inheritability of the land. Which type of freehold estate does Mary most likely own?

  • Fee simple defeasible
  • Life estate
  • Qualified fee
  • Fee simple absolute 

15. Gabriella and Priya own a piece of property together. The ownership terms state that in case of the death of one of the owners, the surviving owner will automatically gain complete ownership of the property. What kind of concurrent ownership is illustrated in this scenario?

  • Joint tenancy
  • Tenancy by the entirety
  • Community property
  • Tenancy in common 

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16. What is the best description of mislaid property?

  • It is real property that is discarded by the owner.
  • It is real property that has been constructed at the wrong place.
  • It is personal property that has been unintentionally forgotten by the owner.
  • It is personal property that has been lost by the owner. 

17. Identify the true statement about the ownership of mislaid, abandoned, and lost property.

  • The owner of lost property cannot claim ownership of it when it has been acquired by someone else.
  • The finder of abandoned property acquires ownership of the property even against the previous owner.
  • The finder of mislaid property can rightfully claim a share in the property from the owner.
  • The owner who abandons a piece of property will still be considered the rightful owner of the property, even if the property has been acquired by another individual. 

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18. Paulina purchased a rare and expensive gem when she was living in Mexico. Since then, she has relocated various times. Now, seven years later, Paulina cannot find the rare gem and does not know where she last saw it. After various attempts to find it, Paulina has decided not to look for the gem again. What will the rare gem most likely be categorized as in this scenario?

  • Real property
  • Abandoned property
  • Mislaid property
  • Lost property 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check  from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

 

 

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify the true statement about intentional torts.

  • A person can be sued for assault even if there was no actual physical contact.
  • A person can be sued for threatening future harm.
  • A person can be accused of battery only if there was direct physical contact.
  • A person cannot be sued for intending to injure one person but injuring another instead. 

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2. When does misappropriation of the right to publicity occur?

  • When private information about a person is made available to the public without the person’s consent
  • When the identity of an individual is used to make commercial gains without the individual’s permission
  • When false statements about an individual are made on a public platform
  • When a false document is signed using another person’s name 

3. Natalia has sued a media agency for publishing false statements about her in one of its widely circulated newspapers. Natalia has sought damages from the media agency for violating her reputation. Identify the tort that is illustrated in the scenario.

  • Misappropriation of right to publicity
  • Battery
  • Libel
  • False imprisonment 

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4. What is true about a negligence lawsuit in the context of unintentional torts?

  • The plaintiff does not need to prove that the defendant owed a duty of care.
  • The plaintiff does not need to prove that actual injury occurred.
  • The plaintiff should prove that the defendant’s negligence caused the injury.
  • The plaintiff needs to prove that the negligence occurred in the profession of the defendant. 

5. What does proximate cause mean?

  • The negligent person or entity is completely responsible for all the damages caused by the negligence.
  • The plaintiff has the right to decide the extent of the negligent party’s liability.
  • The law limits the liability that the negligent party needs to assume for the consequences.
  • The compensation for damages is decided based on the severity of the injury. 

6. To which of the following scenarios would res ipsa loquitur be most applicable?

  • Laura experienced extreme emotional distress after she watched her father get severely injured in an accident.
  • Jason was severely injured when a roller-coaster crashed during a ride in an amusement park.
  • Paulina was seriously injured in a car accident because she was driving under the influence.
  • Samir lost some of his important documents because of a negligent accountant. 

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7. Identify the true statement about the doctrine of strict liability.

  • It allows a plaintiff to recover damages from a defendant if the latter’s conduct has been intentional.
  • It requires a defendant to prove that a plaintiff has breached the duty of due care.
  • It can be disclaimed by wholesalers and retail dealers.
  • It also covers informal sales and transactions. 

8. When does a negligence tort occur in the context of product liability?

  • When a manufacturer intentionally hides a defect of a product
  • When a lessor knowingly provides false information about the quality of a product
  • When a seller breaches the duty of due care while selling a product
  • When a manufacturer makes products under a false identity 

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9. Miranda has filed a lawsuit against a cellphone company that sold her a phone with defective features. Miranda has filed the case because she believes that the company intentionally withheld information about the poor features of the product. It was these defective features that caused Miranda’s hand injury. Identify the product liability tort that would best apply to this scenario.

  • Misrepresentation
  • Negligence
  • Libel
  • Res ipsa loquitur 

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10. What is the most valid defense for a product liability lawsuit?

  • The defendant claims that he or she was not aware of the possible injury that the product could cause.
  • The defendant claims that the product was not modified by the plaintiff after it was bought.
  • The defendant claims that the product was used in an abnormal and wrong manner by the plaintiff.
  • The defendant claims that the product was harmful because of improper packaging. 

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11. In a product liability lawsuit, a seller was excused from paying damages to a customer for injuries caused by a defective product. This was because a number of years had passed since the seller had sold the product to the customer. What statute can best be applied to this scenario to protect the rights of the seller?

  • Statute of limitations
  • Statute of proximate cause
  • Statute of repose
  • Statute of contractor defense 

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12. In which case can the doctrine of comparative negligence be used?

  • When part of the plaintiff’s injuries have been caused by the carelessness of the plaintiff
  • When the plaintiff, out of negligence, takes action against a defendant, several years after the injury has been caused?
  • When the defendant claims that the plaintiff was aware of the risks of using the product in question
  • When the defendant proves that he or she sold the product several years prior to the injury 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify an accurate statement about a sole proprietorship.

A. It is a form of business that is seldom found in the United States.

B. It is a form of business that has only one owner.

C. It is a separate legal entity, distinct from an owner.

D. It is a business form in which the owner enjoys limited liability.

2. Sara and Cilia run a café together. They share ownership of and liability for the café and have come to an agreement about how the profits from the cafe should be divided between them. If the café runs into debt, both Sara and Celia are responsible for the debt.

What form of business is best demonstrated in this scenario?

A. A sole proprietorship

B. A corporation

C. A general partnership

D. A limited liability company

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3. What criterion under the Uniform Partnership Act (UPA) must be met by a business, for it to qualify as a general partnership?

A. The objective of the partnership should be to create profits.

B. One of the owners must be willing to assume completely liability of the business.

C. The partnership should not involve more than two persons.

D. Only one owner should take up the legal responsibility of contracts.

4. What is true about a limited partnership?

A. All the partners are personally liable for partnership debts.

B. The partnership cannot involve more than two individuals.

C. The general partners do not invest capital or participate in the management of the business.

D. The limited partners are not personally liable for partnership debts beyond the amount invested by them.

5. Who among the following is most likely to be a limited partner in a limited partnership?

A. David, who takes up the task of work delegation in the business.

B. Kiara, who makes contracts with suppliers for the partnership.

C. Kevin, who does not have to make up for losses if a contract made by the partnership fails.

D. Nelson, who is required to use his personal wealth to pay for any debts incurred by the partnership.

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6. Who has unlimited liability for the debts and obligations of limited partnerships?

A. Limited partners

B. General partners

C. Shareholders

D. Board of directors

7. What is a characteristic of a corporation?

A. It is a separate legal entity.

B. It is dissolved after the death of any one shareholder.

C. Its shareholders have unlimited liability.

D. Its existence cannot be ended by the choice of its shareholders.

8. Identify the type of corporations in which there are thousands of shareholders and the shares are traded on national stock exchanges.

A. Not-for-profit corporations

B. Sole proprietorships

C. Limited partnerships

D. Publicly held corporations

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9. Alpha Corp. has very few shareholders and all of the shareholders belong to a single family. The shareholders are involved in the operations of the business and frequently make management decisions. What type of corporation does Alpha Corp. best represent?

A. A closely held corporation

B. A government-owned corporation

C. A private corporation

D. A publicly held corporation

10. Identify the true statement about limited liability companies.

A. They are created by federal and not state laws.

B. They are not separate legal entities like corporations.

C. They can be taxed as partnerships.

D. They are incorporated business entities.

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11. What is true about the formation of limited liability companies?

A. Doctors and lawyers most frequently form limited liability companies.

B. Owners can establish their limited liability company in only one state.

C. Owners of limited liability companies cannot conduct business in other states.

D. Sole proprietors cannot form limited liability companies in any state.

12. Delta Group is a business firm created by a team of doctors. The business was formed as per the state’s laws and is not taxed as a separate entity. The owners of the business are not personally liable for the losses, debts, and obligations of the firm. Identify the business form that is best illustrated in the scenario.

A. A limited liability company

B. A general partnership

C. A corporation

D. A limited liability partnership

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13. Nutristar is a soft drink manufacturing company that wishes to expand its business. The company has licensed another firm to manufacture its soft drinks and provided the firm with the necessary confidential information about manufacturing. The licensed company manufactures the soft drinks and distributes them. What type of franchise is best illustrated in this scenario?

A. A processing plant franchise

B. A distributorship franchise

C. An area franchise

D. A chain-style franchise

14. Identify the business arrangement that involves two business firms pooling resources to work on a single, mostly temporary, business project.

A. Franchise

B. Sole proprietorship

C. Merger

D. Joint venture

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15. Gamma Inc. has permitted another firm to operate under its name and use its trademarks and service marks. This firm can now use the intellectual property of Gamma Inc. to produce and distribute products. What business concept is best illustrated in this scenario?

A. Merging

B. Licensing

C. Divesting

D. Acquiring

16. Identify the true statement about negotiation as an alternative form of dispute resolution.

A. The final decision is always approved by a third party.

B. The two parties involved may be represented by attorneys.

C. The court does not permit the parties to negotiate before the trial.

D. The court has to approve an agreement before it is signed by the two parties.

17. Identify the form of alternative dispute resolution in which the two involved parties go to a neutral third party, who makes the final decision.

A. Arbitration

B. Negotiation

C. Mediation

D. Mini-trial

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 18. Synergy Inc. is involved in a dispute with Alpha Corp. Both companies have agreed to conduct a private proceeding involving representatives from each side. They have also appointed lawyers to present their arguments to these representatives. What type of alternative dispute resolution is most likely being used in this scenario?

A. Mediation

B. Arbitration

C. Mini-trial

D. Negotiation

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check.The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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MGT 521 FINAL EXAM

MGT 521 Entire Course,, MGT 521 Final Exam questions, MGT 521 Final Exam study guide, MGT 521 Final Exam Assignment Guide, MGT 521 Assignment Guide, MGT 521 Assignment, MGT 521 Final Exam Guide, MGT 521 UOP Course Tutorial, MGT 521 Final Exam, MGT 521, MGT 521 Final Exam Answers, MGT 521 final, uop MGT 521 Final Exam Answers, MGT 521 week 1, MGT 521 week 3, MGT 521 week 5, MGT 521 Week 4, MGT 521 week 2, MGT 521 week 6, MGT 521 Final Exam Answers free, UOP MGT 521 Final Exam Answers, MGT 521 Final Exam Essays, Mgt 521 Management, 

 1. ________ is defined as a business firm’s intention, beyond its legal and economic obligations, to do the right things and act in ways that are good for society.      

  • Social screening
  • Social responsibility
  • Social obligation
  • Values-based management

 

2. The balanced scorecard measures organizational performance against previously established standards. Which of the four functions of management relates most closely to setting these standards? 

  • Controlling
  • Leading
  • Organizing
  • Planning

Click here to download Complete Answers of MGT 521 FINAL EXAM

3. Budgets can be used as tools within which two functions of management?         

  • Controlling and organizing
  • Planning and leading
  • Controlling and planning
  • Organizing and leading

 

4. Indira Patel has been working in her organization’s computer security department for the past 10 years. If another employee follows Indira’s recommendations in a given situation, based on her expertise in computer security, which source of power is Indira using?          

  • Legitimate power
  • Coercive power
  • Expert power
  • Referent power

 

5. If Carol Reece is a charismatic leader, which of the following characteristics is she most likely to possess?    

  • An external locus of control
  • A sensitivity to environmental constraints and follower needs
  • A strong need to be in control
  • A fear of taking risks

 

6. According to the Ohio State studies, which of the following dimensions of leader behavior refers to the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and the roles of group members to meet goals?

  • Consideration structure
  • Intelligence structure
  • Initiating structure
  • Psychological structure

Click here to download MGT 521 Complete Course Assignment

7. On Monday, Jim’s Taco Shop identified a problem with tainted ground beef that was used to make tacos and nacho platters for its lunch customers. If the staff at Jim’s did not identify the problem until after the lunch rush, what type of control would this demonstrate?    

  • Feedforward control
  • Concurrent control
  • Proactive control
  • Feedback control

 

8. The ________ determines the number of levels and managers in an organization.          

  • chain of command
  • span of control
  • unity of command
  • delegation of authority

 

9. During benchmarking, an organization can compare its processes and products to competitors in its own industry and to noncompetitors outside the industry. What is a main benefit of comparing a firm’s performance against an organization it does not consider a competitor?       

  • A noncompetitor may allow an organization to see its practices more readily than a competitor in the same industry.
  • A noncompetitor may be the world leader in a specific process or practice, and an organization can learn from it.
  • A noncompetitor may be easier to find and benchmark, because the top firms in the world are so diverse.
  • There is no benefit to benchmarking a firm against a noncompetitor.

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10. If a manager rationalizes that he or she does not have time to investigate the source of a problem and instead resorts to putting out fires, the manager is missing the use of ________.    

  • bureaucratic control
  • basic corrective action
  • concurrent control
  • immediate corrective action

 

11. Which leadership theory is derived from the belief that a leader’s job is to remove pitfalls and roadblocks so followers can achieve their work goals?    

  • Contingency theory
  • Fiedler’s theory
  • Leader participation model
  • Path-goal theory

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12. A company that wants to distinguish itself from the competition in the marketplace is most likely using which of the following strategies?         

  • Functional strategy
  • Focus strategy
  • Differentiation strategy
  • Generic strategy

 

13. When a manager makes use of a SWOT analysis, one of his or her objectives is to       

  • set specific short-term performance standards for each department
  • formulate appropriate strategies to exploit strengths, protect against threats, and correct weaknesses
  • evaluate the desirability of issuing stocks or bonds in the current financial climate
  • identify the best employees to fill each position in the organization

 

14. What can be said about a manager who believes she worked hard and met her organization’s productivity goals despite unfavorable conditions?          

  • She has an external locus of control.
  • She has a high ego strength.
  • She has an internal locus of control.
  • She has a low ego strength.

Click here to download MGT 521 Final Exam Assignment

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of a matrix organization?

  • It is free of internal and external boundaries.
  • It has formal departments to which employees return after completing a project
  • It conforms to the unity of command principle.
  • It has a single chain of command for functional managers to report to.

 

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of an organic organization?       

  • Narrow span of controls
  • High specialization
  • Cross-functional teams
  • Rigid departmentalization

 

17. Conflicts can be resolved by satisfying one’s own needs at the expense of others. This conflict- management technique is known as ________.       

  • forcing
  • avoiding
  • collaborating
  • compromising

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18. When planning for unexpected events, a company is using which of the following techniques?           

  • Contingency planning
  • Benchmarking
  • Financial forecasting
  • SWOT analysis

 

19. Melvin manages a team of 10 employees, including Jane and Jared.  Jared is leaving the organization to find a job as a manager in another field. Meanwhile, due to performance issues, Melvin terminates Jane’s employment with the company. Both of these are examples of what type of employee behavior?    

  • Job satisfaction
  • Employee productivity
  • Absenteeism
  • Turnover

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20. Searching for new ideas beyond an organization’s boundaries and allowing changes to easily transfer inward and outward is known as ________.          

  • open innovation
  • strategic partnering
  • knowledge management
  • organizational osmosis

 

21. Which business practice would likely encourage ethical behavior?           

  • Intense competition for valued rewards
  • Cultural values for obedience to authority
  • Strong emphasis on individual productivity
  • Strong emphasis on leading by example

 

22. Why are feedforward controls more rarely implemented as compared to other types of controls?     

  • Feedforward controls result in wasted time and money.
  • Feedforward controls require managers to interact directly with employees.
  • Feedforward controls are time-consuming for managers because they must continually monitor progress.
  • Feedforward controls require timely and accurate information that is hard to obtain.

Click here to download MGT 521 Week 5 Complete

23. Which of the following statements is true about group decision making?

  • It generates more complete information and knowledge.
  • It is most suitable for matters that must be critically evaluated.
  • It prevents any one minority from dominating or influencing the final decision.
  • It takes less time to reach a solution than it would an individual.

 

24. In the ________ approach of going green, organizations respond to the environmental preferences of customers.         

  • activist
  • legal
  • market
  • stakeholder

 

25. Thomas often annoys his coworkers with his talkativeness and assertive personality. According to the Big Five Model of personality, Thomas would be described as high in the trait of  ________.    

  • openness to experience
  • extraversion
  • agreeableness
  • conscientiousness

To download the complete Questions and Answers click MGT 521 Final Exam

26. If a firm wanted to identify how much money was being made for each sale of a given product (above and beyond the costs associated with making that product), what type of ratio would it use?  

  • Liquidity ratios
  • Activity ratios
  • Profitability ratios
  • Leverage ratios

 

27. It is crucial to determine an acceptable _____ during the comparing step in the control process.           

  • written report
  • measure of organizational performance
  • ideal standard
  • range of variation

Click here to download MGT 521 Entire Course

28. An organization’s ________ goals are official statements of what an organization says its goals are.    

  • real
  • stated
  • synthetic
  • implicit

29. Kelly is interviewing candidates to fill a vacancy on her team. One candidate has a degree from a prestigious university, and Kelly is impressed. In speaking with her fellow members of the interview panel, however, Kelly finds that no one else enjoyed the interview with the candidate, finding her to be pompous, aggressive, and self-serving. In her focus on only the candidate’s education, Kelly may have fallen victim to _______.           

  • stereotyping
  • the halo effect
  • assumed similarity
  • selectivity

Want to check out the complete Assignment..?? Visit MGT 521 Final Exam Assignments

30. Which of the following stages is when the group structure is in place and accepted by the group members?  

  • Norming
  • Storming
  • Performing
  • Adjourning

 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix MGT 521 FINAL EXAM.The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of MGT 521 FINAL EXAM Assignments from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:

 

MGT 521 Week 1 DQ 1

MGT 521 Week 1 DQ 2

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MGT 521 Week 1 DQ 4

MGT 521 Week 1 Personal Professional Development Plan Activity

MGT 521 Week 1 Summary

MGT 521 Week 1 Complete

MGT 521 Week 2 DQ 1

MGT 521 Week 2 DQ 2

MGT 521 Week 2 DQ 3

MGT 521 Week 2 DQ 4

MGT 521 Week 2 Functional Areas of Business Paper

MGT 521 Week 2 Personal Professional Development Plan Activity Part 3

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MGT 521 Week 2 Summary

MGT 521 Week 2 Complete

MGT 521 Week 3 DQ 1

MGT 521 Week 3 DQ 2

MGT 521 Week 3 DQ 3

MGT 521 Week 3 DQ 4

MGT 521 Week 3 Learning Team Reflection

MGT 521 Week 3 Organizational Planning

MGT 521 Week 3 Summary

MGT 521 Week 3 Quiz or Knowledge Check Assignment

MGT 521 Week 3 Complete

MGT 521 Week 4 DQ 1

MGT 521 Week 4 DQ 2

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MGT 521 Week 4 Organizing Work

MGT 521 Week 4 Quiz or Knowledge Check Assignment

MGT 521 Week 4 Summary

MGT 521 Week 4 Complete

MGT 521 Week 5 DQ 1

MGT 521 Week 5 DQ 2

MGT 521 Week 5 DQ 3

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MGT 521 Week 5 Learning Team Reflection

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MGT 521 Week 5 Complete

MGT 521 Week 6 Learning Team Reflection

MGT 521 Week 6 Personal Professional Development Plan

MGT 521 Week 6 Planning and Measuring Performance

MGT 521 Week 6 Quiz Knowledge Check Assignment

MGT 521 Week 6 Complete

MGT 521 FINAL EXAM

 

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

MKT 421 Final Exam

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1. Compared with other approaches to business, the marketing concept is distinct in that it:

  • Produces new products and services.
  • Focuses on satisfying customers’ needs.
  • Focuses on sales.
  • Creates a broad assortment of products.

2. The sales analysis of a product revealed that profits were highest when it was initially introduced into the market with a high selling price. However, the price was gradually reduced as it started facing competition as substitutes entered the market. This is an example of a (n) _____.

  • Skimming price policy
  • Introductory price dealing
  • Penetration price policy
  • Temporary price cut policy

Click here to download Complete Answers of UOP MKT 421 Final Exam Answers

3. Behavioral targeting:

  • Delivers ads to consumers based on previous websites the customer has visited.
  • Tries to reach target customers who are actually interested in what the firm has to communicate.
  • Tries to place ads on websites that are designed to appeal to the firm’s target market.
  • Allows advertisers to pay only when a customer clicks on the ad and links to the advertiser’s website.

4. Which of the following is true of direct distribution?

  • It requires a significant investment in facilities.
  • Direct distribution always serves customer needs better and at a lower cost.
  • Most firms selling consumer products rely on direct distribution.
  • It reduces a producer’s need for working capital.

5. The three basic sales tasks are:

  • Order-closing, order-opening, and sales-promoting.
  • Order-taking, missionary selling, and order-getting.
  • Order-taking, supporting, and order-getting.
  • Order-taking, order-managing, and order-getting.

6. A useful tool for organizing the competitor analysis is:

  • The oligopoly chart.
  • The competitive summary.
  • A competitor matrix.
  • Rivals chart.

To download the complete paper click MKT 421 Assignment Guide 

7. Marketers cannot assume that a product that meets consumer needs in one country will do so in another. This is because:

  • The purchase situations may be different.
  • Family life cycles may be different.
  • Many wants are culturally learned.
  • Economic wants do not influence purchases in many regions of the world.

8. The main difference between the “marketing department era” and the “marketing company era” is:

  • More emphasis on short-run planning in the marketing company era.
  • More emphasis on selling and advertising in the marketing department era.
  • Whether the president of the firm has a background in marketing.
  • Whether the whole company is customer-oriented.

9. David Oreck advertises Oreck vacuum cleaners via commercials that run on national radio programs. He encourages consumers to “…try my 8-pound Oreck vacuum for free for 30 days,” and to return it if they aren’t satisfied. He then provides an easy-to-remember toll-free telephone number that consumers can use to place orders. Regarding the AIDA model, the free-trial period and availability of a toll-free number are devices used mainly to:

  • Obtain action.
  • Hold interest.
  • Arouse desire.
  • Get attention.

Click here to download MKT 421 Final Exam study guide

 10. More than 600,000 loyal customers signed up in advance to purchase the iPhone4 in an Apple store the first day it was available for sale in the U.S. What type of response behavior were these Apple followers demonstrating?

  • Routinized response
  • Low-involvement buying
  • Limited problem solving
  • Dissonance response

11. Because she frequently buys books at Amazon.com, Sophie Soleil set up an account and password at the website. Now, when she logs on and searches for a specific book, a note pops up at the center of her laptop screen saying: “Hello, Sophie, we have recommendations for you,” and proceeds to list other titles that Sophie might enjoy based on her previous purchases. Amazon can remember Sophie (and her previous purchases) because the online retailer uses:

  • Banners.
  • Cookies.
  • Encoding.
  • Decoding.

12. When an advertiser pays a fixed amount (e.g. 70 cents) each time a Web surfer clicks on the advertiser’s ad and links to the advertiser’s website, this process is called a(n):

  • pay-per-click.
  • copy thrust.
  • pay-per-view.
  • pioneering ad.

Want to download the Questions..?? Click MKT 421 UOP Tutorials 

13. According to the concept of social responsibility, a firm has a duty to:

  • Conduct business in a way that is good for society as a whole, both now and for the future.
  • Communicate regularly with the public.
  • Place profit above all other considerations.
  • Place customer satisfaction above all other considerations.

14. Which of the following is a common cause of new product failures?

  • The company delays putting the product on the market until it develops a complete marketing plan.
  • The company tries to follow an organized new-product development process—rather than using a faster and more spontaneous, “race-to-market” approach.
  • The product fails to offer the customer a unique benefit.
  • The managers worry too much about the competition.

15. Tammi Soloft has itchy eyes and a stuffy nose, and suddenly becomes aware of many TV ads for allergy products that she never noticed before. This illustrates:

  • reinforced cognition.
  • selective perception.
  • selective exposure.
  • selective retention.

Want to check out the complete paper..?? Visit MKT 421 Final Exam complete 

16. Genetech Corp. has invested heavily to develop a patented new product. Genetech wants to achieve a rapid return on its investment. It probably should set a ______________ pricing objective.

  • Profit maximization
  • Sales-oriented
  • Status quo
  • Target return

17. When a company provides its advertising agency with a statement about a new product to use in designing an advertising campaign, and this statement includes a description of the target market, the product type, the primary benefits of using the product, and how this product is different from, and better than, competitive products, what type of statement is this?

  • Qualifying
  • Positioning
  • Clustering
  • Determining

18. The advantages of working with an intermediary usually increase when there is:

  • A greater number of customers.
  • Little distance between customers.
  • A smaller number of competing products.
  • Excellent communication with customers.

To download the complete paper click MKT 421 Entire Course 

19. When new product ideas are chosen based on ratings and comments from customers, this process is called ______.

  • Reaction engineering
  • Creative resourcing
  • Crowdsourcing
  • Idea engineering

20. In the 1990s, DVDs replaced audiocassettes and floppy disks as the storage media of choice for music and computers. At which stage of the product life cycle is the DVD today?

  • Sales decline
  • Market introduction
  • Market extinction
  • Market immaturity

21. The primary purpose of branding is:

  • To prevent competitors from stealing product ideas.
  • To identify a product.
  • To boost customer satisfaction.
  • To enhance package design.

Click here to download Complete Answers of MKT 421 Final Exam complete 

22. Clearwater Office Supply sells frequently purchased office supplies to businesses in a metropolitan area. It is a well-established company with a large share of the market. Its promotion should probably focus on:

  • Reminding.
  • Informing.
  • Stimulating primary demand.
  • Innovators.

23. The main difference between a “marketing strategy” and a “marketing plan” is that:

  • A marketing strategy provides more detail.
  • Time-related details are included in a marketing plan.
  • A marketing plan includes several marketing strategies.
  • A marketing strategy omits pricing plans.

Click here to download MKT 421 Final Exam Assignment Guide 

24. From the perspective of macro-marketing, e-commerce specialists CarFax (which provides vehicle history reports) and Cars.com (a website offering auto comparison shopping) have emerged within the auto industry because:

  • The information they provide makes the exchange process between producers and consumers more efficient and effective.
  • The role of the automotive sales person is becoming obsolete.
  • Auto manufacturers need to sell direct to consumers.
  • The market needs competitive rivals to auto dealerships.

25. In the American Marketing Association’s Statement of Ethics, which ethical value stresses a firm’s attempts to balance the needs of its buyers with the interests of sellers?

  • Citizenship
  • Responsibility
  • Honesty
  • Fairness

26. Most firms in the business world set their prices using:

  • Demand-oriented price setting.
  • Federal price guidelines.
  • Supply and demand analysis.
  • Cost-oriented price setting.

To download the complete paper click MKT 421 Final Exam questions 

27. A producer might use a “pulling policy” rather than a “pushing policy” if:  

  • Intermediaries are reluctant to handle a new product.
  • Its sales force has been very successful getting wholesalers and retailers to handle its product.
  • It is offering a very “high-tech” product to a small product-market.
  • It has a very limited promotion budget.

28. The phrase “big data” refers to:

  • the top five firms in the marketing research industry.
  • the use of marketing research in big marketing decisions.
  • the massive amount of data being collected and processed by today’s organizations.
  • marketing research data taken from Internet sources.

Want to see the complete Assignment Check..?? Click MKT 421 Assignment Guide

29. In which quadrant of the SWOT analysis tool does the following fit? A firm is in a fast-growing industry.

  • Weaknesses
  • Opportunities
  • Strengths
  • Threats

30. Blending the firm’s promotion efforts to convey a complete and consistent message is the goal of:

  • Sales promotion communications.
  • Integrated marketing communications.
  • Integrated promotional marketing.
  • Sales management communications. 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix MKT 421 Final Exam.The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of MKT 421 Assignment Guide from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:

MKT 421 Week 1 Discussion Questions

MKT 421 Week 1 Defining Marketing Paper

MKT 421 Week 1 Complete

MKT 421 Week 2 Discussion Questions

MKT 421 Week 2 Marketing Mix Paper

MKT 421 Week 2 Complete

MKT 421 Week 3 Discussion Questions

MKT 421 Week 3 Marketing Research Paper

MKT 421 Week 3 Marketing Plan Phase II

MKT 421 Week 3 Complete

MKT 421 Week 4 Discussion Questions

MKT 421 Week 4 Marketing Plan Phase III

MKT 421 Week 4 Complete

MKT 421 Week 5 Environmental Factors Paper

MKT 421 Week 5 Marketing Plan Final Paper and Presentation

MKT 421 Week 5 Complete

MKT 421 Final Exam Answers

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

 

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