LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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1. What is true of the Foreign Commerce Clause in the context of the United States and foreign affairs?

  • It does not encompass state and local laws.
  • It gives the federal government exclusive power over foreign affairs.
  • It prohibits multilateral treaties.
  • It authorizes Congress to regulate commerce with foreign nations. 

2. The country of Elamia has added a new feature to its constitution. This feature gives power to the central government to enter into treaties with foreign countries. It does not give this power to state governments. In addition, this feature states that any local law that goes against a centrally-formed treaty will be canceled. Which part of the U.S. Constitution does Elamia’s new constitutional feature closely resemble?

  • Treaty Clause
  • Foreign Commerce Clause
  • Bilateral Treaty Clause
  • North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) 

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3. In the context of the United States and foreign affairs, treaties _____.

  • can only be formed between two nations
  • can only be formed only if sponsored by international organizations
  • are considered equal to lawmaking at the international level
  • can be formed even by local governments 

4. The International Court of Justice _____.

  • hears cases related to individuals and businesses
  • hears cases involving nations
  • is composed of five judges
  • is located in Geneva 

5. What is true in the context of the European Union (EU)?

  • The European Union Commission is independent of its member nations.
  • The Council of Ministers is composed of representatives from only five member countries.
  • All major decisions of the Council of Ministers require unanimity and no changes in the treaty are made based only on a majority vote.
  • All EU member countries have voted to use the euro. 

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6. The World Trade Organization (WTO) implements various rounds of negotiations among its membership. Through these rounds, it aims to achieve major reform of the international trading system. What is the fundamental objective of the Doha Round of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

  • To increase trade barriers
  • To resolve trade disputes arising from contracts
  • To improve trade prospects of developing countries
  • To issue panel reports in dispute cases 

7. What is the correct statement in the context of Hindu law?

  • Anglo-Hindu law was adopted in India, post its independence.
  • Classical Hindu Law rests on the works of private scholars.
  • Hindu law is not codified in any country.
  • Hindu law is predominantly based on court decisions. 

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8. Which international religious law is based on the ideology and theology of the Torah?

  • Islamic law
  • Jewish law
  • Hindu law
  • Christian law 

9. Ayub is an owner of a business that deals with the manufacture and sale of silk rugs. According to Islamic law, which of the following would most likely apply to Ayub, if riba was prohibited?

  • Ayub would be able to pay interest on loans.
  • Ayub would not be able to make any profits from the sale of his rugs.
  • Ayub would not be allowed to make any unjustified profits.
  • Ayub would not be permitted to earn profits from any services provided by him. 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check.The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify an accurate statement about the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).

  • It prohibits the disclosure of nutrition information on food labels.
  • It only covers the quality of actual products and does not encompass packaging.
  • It prohibits the shipment, distribution, or sale of adulterated food.
  • It does not place liability on manufacturers or distributors for deceptive labelling. 

2. Which product is exempt from Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulation of cosmetics?

  • Household soap
  • Facial cleanser
  • Lip color
  • Eye shadow 

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3. Glitter is a clothing store advertising a week-long sale featuring low-price summer merchandise. Amy visits the store on the second day of the sale to buy discounted clothing. However, the store has very few of the low-price clothes remaining. When Amy inquires about the sale, she is, instead, directed to a section of very expensive clothing that is not on sale. Feeling pressurized by the salesperson to buy some of the expensive clothes, Amy ends up spending a lot of money at the store. What type of deceptive business practice is best illustrated in the scenario?

  • Credit and debt
  • Trade libel
  • Door-to-door sales
  • Bait and switch 

4. What is an environmental impact statement most likely to contain?

  • Guidelines for maintaining environmental standards for state governments
  • A cost-benefit analysis of a proposed federal action that might affect the environment
  • Annual environmental reports provided by state governments
  • Conservation proposals made by environmental experts outside the government 

5. Identify the federal act that was enacted to regulate the disposal of new hazardous wastes and empowers the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to regulate facilities that generate, treat, store, transport, and dispose hazardous wastes.

  • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
  • Toxic Substances Control Act
  • National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
  • Nuclear Waste Policy Act 

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6. What is a true statement in the context of environmental laws?

  • The Clean Air Act encompasses only stationary sources of pollution and not automobiles.
  • States are responsible for the enforcement of air quality standards even though the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) sets the standards.
  • The primary task of enforcing the provisions of the Clean Water Act rests with the federal government and not state governments.
  • The federal Clean Water Act does not encompass the maintenance of wetlands. 

7. What is true of the per se rule according to Section 1 of the Sherman Act?

  • It holds that even reasonable restraints violate Section 1 of the Sherman Act.
  • It applies to restraints that are intrinsically anticompetitive.
  • It applies to cases where restraints have both pro- and anticompetitive effects.
  • It applies to cases where justifications and evidence can be considered to evaluate restraints. 

8. Envy, Bling, and Pattern are three established and well-known clothing manufacturers and sellers. They decide not to sell their clothes to Embellish, a clothing retail store. Which form of horizontal restraint does this scenario best exemplify?

  • Price fixing
  • Division of markets
  • Group boycotts
  • Conscious parallelisms 

9. Some forms of business and activities like labor unions and agricultural cooperatives are expressly exempt from the reach of antitrust laws in the rules enacted by Congress. What type of exemptions are these?

  • Statutory exemptions
  • Implied exemptions
  • State action exemptions
  • Organization exemptions 

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10. When is a court likely to apply the piercing the corporate veil doctrine?

  • When a corporation is not generating adequate profits because of a drop in sales
  • When a shareholder has been found to be misusing corporate assets
  • When shareholders are not adequately participating in the management of the corporation
  • When an employee has violated corporation rules 

11. What statement is true in the context of the board of directors of a corporation?

  • All members of the board should be officers of the corporation.
  • All members of the board should have the same set of specific qualifications.
  • Officers of other corporations can be elected as directors of the board.
  • Directors of the board should be residents of the state in which the corporation was incorporated. 

12. Riya is a corporate officer as well as a senior academic author at Derive Inc., a content management company. The company develops question banks and learning material for students. Riya, without permission from the company, starts her own content management company. Derive then recovers damages and profits from Riya. Which act of disloyalty does this scenario best exemplify in the context of fiduciary duties?

  • Making a secret profit
  • Usurping a corporate opportunity
  • Self-dealing
  • Competing with the corporation 

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13.What step can food manufacturers and processors take to avoid legal risks associated with the Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA)?

  • Exclude dietary information on packaging
  • Provide information about all the nutrients on packaging
  • Provide only point-of-purchase nutrition information
  • Exclude information about serving size on packaging 

14. According to Section 2 of the Clayton Act, in which of these scenarios is a seller most likely to face a legal risk?

  • Jeremy, a seller, uses price discrimination to meet a competitor’s price.
  • Alex, a seller, sells similar quality products to two customers at different prices around the same time.
  • Marcos, a seller, increases product prices because of increased costs of production and packaging.
  • Chang, a seller, offers a service to a particular customer for a reduced price. 

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15. What will help chemical industries avoid legal risks in the context of environmental laws?

  • Using special labeling for toxic substances
  • Avoiding testing of new chemicals
  • Meeting only the standards that are economically feasible
  • Adopting only technologically feasible disposal standards 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify the true statement about principal-agent and employer-employee agency relationships.

  • The employee in an employer-employee relationship is authorized to act on behalf of the employer in all business situations.
  • The principal in a principal-agent relationship has no authority over contracts made by the agent.
  • The employee in an employer-employee relationship can sign contracts on behalf of the employer.
  • The agent in a principal-agent relationship is authorized to act on behalf of the principal. 

2. In certain types of agencies, the parties involved do not sign a formal contract. However, it can be inferred from their conduct, that they are part of the agency. What is this kind of agency known as?

  • Implied agency
  • Express agency
  • Agency by ratification
  • Agency by contract 

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3. Beta Corp. and Woodrow LLC. have formed an agency. Both parties have agreed to the terms on which the agency will operate, and they have signed a contract. According to the terms of the contract, Woodrow, the agent, is authorized to act on behalf of Beta. Identify the type of agency illustrated in the scenario.

  • Agency by ratification
  • Express agency
  • Implied agency
  • Apparent agency 

4. What is true about disparate-treatment discrimination?

  • It involves discrimination against an entire protected class.
  • It involves discrimination against an individual belonging to a protected class. It refers to discrimination against an individual who
  • does not belong to a protected class or minority.
  • It occurs when a company does not follow racially neutral employment practices. 

5. What is true about color discrimination?

  • It can be justified by a bona fide occupational qualification.
  • It is essentially the same as discrimination based on race.
  • It is covered under Title VII.
  • It is prohibited but victims cannot recover damages even if discrimination is proved. 

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6. Identify the true statement about law in the United States, in the context of gender discrimination.

  • The laws that prohibit gender discrimination apply only to women.
  • The law does not specifically prohibit discrimination based on sexual orientation.
  • The law prohibits employment discrimination based on pregnancy.
  • The laws against gender discrimination do not prohibit quid pro quo sexual discrimination. 

7. Which of the following remedies can be granted by courts for violations of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

  • Reasonable attorney’s fees to the plaintiff
  • Reduction of salaries for all other employees in the plaintiff’s company
  • Unlimited power to the plaintiff to hire and terminate other employees in the company
  • Punitive damages in the amount requested by the plaintiff 

8. What remedy is a court likely to grant an employee if his or her employer is found to have violated the Equal Pay Act?

  • The employer will be required to lower the wages of other employees to bring in uniformity.
  • The employee will be eligible for a pay hike but will not be able to recover back pay.
  • The employee will be able to recover damages but will not be able to have his or her wages increased.
  • The employee will be able to recover back pay as well as liquidated damages. 

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9. What is true about the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)?

  • It enables plaintiffs to recover damages, even where bona fide occupational qualifications have been shown by their employers.
  • It allows employers to use employment advertisements that discriminate against applicants on the basis of age.
  • It ensures the reinstatement of plaintiffs, if they have been terminated on the basis of age.
  • It ensures that the wages of other employees are lowered. 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows: 

 LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

 

 

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

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1. What is true about the acceptance of a contract?

  • It is effective only once it has reached the offeror, whether or not it has been properly dispatched by the offeree.
  • It must not support the mirror image rule.
  • It must be an unequivocal acceptance, without conditions or exceptions.
  • It cannot be expressed with silence, even if the offeree has specified that silence means acceptance. 

2. Which element of a contract requires something of legal value to be provided in exchange for a promise?

  • Consideration
  • Objective intent
  • Agreement
  • Capacity 

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3. Jason, a 16-year old boy, enters into a contract with a businessperson to work on a construction project. According to the contract, Jason has to work long hours but will get paid a minimal amount because of his age. Jason, though unfamiliar with contracts, knows that the contract is not fair to him. He decides to cancel it. What gives Jason the right to void the contract?

  • Minor’s duty of restoration
  • Infancy doctrine
  • Adjudged insane
  • Covenant not to compete 

4. What will most likely happen when there is a material breach by one of the parties in a contract?

  • The breaching party will restate the express terms of the contract.
  • The contract will be discharged by both parties.
  • The nonbreaching party will terminate the contract and recover compensation.
  • The breaching party will affirm the contract and modify consideration terms. 

5. Venus LLC is a supplier for Synergy Corp. These companies have entered into a contract according to which, Venus will supply Synergy with a certain quantity of raw materials every month. In the month of May, Venus realizes that it cannot keep to the terms of the contract due to an unforeseeable worker strike. It informs Synergy of this delay much before the planned delivery date. What type of contract breach is illustrated in the scenario?

  • Minor breach
  • Anticipatory breach
  • Actual breach
  • Retrospective breach 

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6. Identify the type of damages that are awarded to a nonbreaching party when a breach of contract has occurred but has not resulted in any financial losses for the nonbreaching party.

  • Consequential damages
  • Penalty damages
  • Nominal damages
  • Special damages 

7. Identify the true statement about the legal protection of trade secrets.

  • The law allows individuals or companies the use of trade secrets discovered through reverse engineering.
  • The law does not place the obligation to protect trade secrets on the owners of the trade secrets.
  • The law mandates that all trade secrets be copyrighted.
  • The law does not categorize the stealing of a trade secret as a federal crime. 

8. What type of subject matter can be patented according to the U.S. federal government?

  • Scientific hypotheses and principles
  • Abstractions
  • Designs for a manufactured product
  • Obvious inventions 

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9. Caleb, a doctoral student, is sued by the author of a textbook for copyright infringement. The court rules that Caleb is not guilty since the content was used for the purpose of review in his research paper. In addition, he has written these paragraphs verbatim and placed them within quotes, citing appropriate references. What doctrine has the court most likely applied in this scenario?

  • Fair use doctrine
  • Res ipsa loquiter
  • Lanham doctrine
  • Misrepresentation doctrine 

10. Identify the true statement about personal property.

  • Personal property does not include items that are captured, purchased, or gifted.
  • Personal property can also be intangible.
  • Personal property includes only real property.
  • A single piece of personal property cannot be owned by two individuals at the same time. 

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11.Sandra is having her home renovated. Despite the specifications she has given the contractors, they add a door to separate her kitchen from her living room. Since Sandra likes the look, she does not ask them to change it. She also does not pay them extra, since the door was added by them, mistakenly. Which of the following terms best explains why Sandra has a right to the added feature without paying for it?

  • Accession
  • Confusion
  • Mislaid property
  • Gift inter vivos

12. Identify the situation in which two goods that look similar are commingled by owners who share ownership of the goods based on the proportion of their contributions.

  • Accession
  • Mislaid property
  • Possession
  • Confusion 

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13. What is true about real property, including land?

  • Real property includes property that is movable.
  • An owner of land has rights to the earth that lies beneath the land.
  • An owner of land owns the vegetation on the land only if the owner himself has cultivated the vegetation.
  • Real property does not encompass fixtures. 

14. Mary owns a piece of land and enjoys complete legal rights to the land, without any conditions or limitations. Her ownership does not end unless she transfers the land to a beneficiary. There are also no limitations on the inheritability of the land. Which type of freehold estate does Mary most likely own?

  • Fee simple defeasible
  • Life estate
  • Qualified fee
  • Fee simple absolute 

15. Gabriella and Priya own a piece of property together. The ownership terms state that in case of the death of one of the owners, the surviving owner will automatically gain complete ownership of the property. What kind of concurrent ownership is illustrated in this scenario?

  • Joint tenancy
  • Tenancy by the entirety
  • Community property
  • Tenancy in common 

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16. What is the best description of mislaid property?

  • It is real property that is discarded by the owner.
  • It is real property that has been constructed at the wrong place.
  • It is personal property that has been unintentionally forgotten by the owner.
  • It is personal property that has been lost by the owner. 

17. Identify the true statement about the ownership of mislaid, abandoned, and lost property.

  • The owner of lost property cannot claim ownership of it when it has been acquired by someone else.
  • The finder of abandoned property acquires ownership of the property even against the previous owner.
  • The finder of mislaid property can rightfully claim a share in the property from the owner.
  • The owner who abandons a piece of property will still be considered the rightful owner of the property, even if the property has been acquired by another individual. 

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18. Paulina purchased a rare and expensive gem when she was living in Mexico. Since then, she has relocated various times. Now, seven years later, Paulina cannot find the rare gem and does not know where she last saw it. After various attempts to find it, Paulina has decided not to look for the gem again. What will the rare gem most likely be categorized as in this scenario?

  • Real property
  • Abandoned property
  • Mislaid property
  • Lost property 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check  from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

 

 

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify the true statement about intentional torts.

  • A person can be sued for assault even if there was no actual physical contact.
  • A person can be sued for threatening future harm.
  • A person can be accused of battery only if there was direct physical contact.
  • A person cannot be sued for intending to injure one person but injuring another instead. 

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2. When does misappropriation of the right to publicity occur?

  • When private information about a person is made available to the public without the person’s consent
  • When the identity of an individual is used to make commercial gains without the individual’s permission
  • When false statements about an individual are made on a public platform
  • When a false document is signed using another person’s name 

3. Natalia has sued a media agency for publishing false statements about her in one of its widely circulated newspapers. Natalia has sought damages from the media agency for violating her reputation. Identify the tort that is illustrated in the scenario.

  • Misappropriation of right to publicity
  • Battery
  • Libel
  • False imprisonment 

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4. What is true about a negligence lawsuit in the context of unintentional torts?

  • The plaintiff does not need to prove that the defendant owed a duty of care.
  • The plaintiff does not need to prove that actual injury occurred.
  • The plaintiff should prove that the defendant’s negligence caused the injury.
  • The plaintiff needs to prove that the negligence occurred in the profession of the defendant. 

5. What does proximate cause mean?

  • The negligent person or entity is completely responsible for all the damages caused by the negligence.
  • The plaintiff has the right to decide the extent of the negligent party’s liability.
  • The law limits the liability that the negligent party needs to assume for the consequences.
  • The compensation for damages is decided based on the severity of the injury. 

6. To which of the following scenarios would res ipsa loquitur be most applicable?

  • Laura experienced extreme emotional distress after she watched her father get severely injured in an accident.
  • Jason was severely injured when a roller-coaster crashed during a ride in an amusement park.
  • Paulina was seriously injured in a car accident because she was driving under the influence.
  • Samir lost some of his important documents because of a negligent accountant. 

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7. Identify the true statement about the doctrine of strict liability.

  • It allows a plaintiff to recover damages from a defendant if the latter’s conduct has been intentional.
  • It requires a defendant to prove that a plaintiff has breached the duty of due care.
  • It can be disclaimed by wholesalers and retail dealers.
  • It also covers informal sales and transactions. 

8. When does a negligence tort occur in the context of product liability?

  • When a manufacturer intentionally hides a defect of a product
  • When a lessor knowingly provides false information about the quality of a product
  • When a seller breaches the duty of due care while selling a product
  • When a manufacturer makes products under a false identity 

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9. Miranda has filed a lawsuit against a cellphone company that sold her a phone with defective features. Miranda has filed the case because she believes that the company intentionally withheld information about the poor features of the product. It was these defective features that caused Miranda’s hand injury. Identify the product liability tort that would best apply to this scenario.

  • Misrepresentation
  • Negligence
  • Libel
  • Res ipsa loquitur 

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10. What is the most valid defense for a product liability lawsuit?

  • The defendant claims that he or she was not aware of the possible injury that the product could cause.
  • The defendant claims that the product was not modified by the plaintiff after it was bought.
  • The defendant claims that the product was used in an abnormal and wrong manner by the plaintiff.
  • The defendant claims that the product was harmful because of improper packaging. 

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11. In a product liability lawsuit, a seller was excused from paying damages to a customer for injuries caused by a defective product. This was because a number of years had passed since the seller had sold the product to the customer. What statute can best be applied to this scenario to protect the rights of the seller?

  • Statute of limitations
  • Statute of proximate cause
  • Statute of repose
  • Statute of contractor defense 

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12. In which case can the doctrine of comparative negligence be used?

  • When part of the plaintiff’s injuries have been caused by the carelessness of the plaintiff
  • When the plaintiff, out of negligence, takes action against a defendant, several years after the injury has been caused?
  • When the defendant claims that the plaintiff was aware of the risks of using the product in question
  • When the defendant proves that he or she sold the product several years prior to the injury 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify an accurate statement about a sole proprietorship.

A. It is a form of business that is seldom found in the United States.

B. It is a form of business that has only one owner.

C. It is a separate legal entity, distinct from an owner.

D. It is a business form in which the owner enjoys limited liability.

2. Sara and Cilia run a café together. They share ownership of and liability for the café and have come to an agreement about how the profits from the cafe should be divided between them. If the café runs into debt, both Sara and Celia are responsible for the debt.

What form of business is best demonstrated in this scenario?

A. A sole proprietorship

B. A corporation

C. A general partnership

D. A limited liability company

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3. What criterion under the Uniform Partnership Act (UPA) must be met by a business, for it to qualify as a general partnership?

A. The objective of the partnership should be to create profits.

B. One of the owners must be willing to assume completely liability of the business.

C. The partnership should not involve more than two persons.

D. Only one owner should take up the legal responsibility of contracts.

4. What is true about a limited partnership?

A. All the partners are personally liable for partnership debts.

B. The partnership cannot involve more than two individuals.

C. The general partners do not invest capital or participate in the management of the business.

D. The limited partners are not personally liable for partnership debts beyond the amount invested by them.

5. Who among the following is most likely to be a limited partner in a limited partnership?

A. David, who takes up the task of work delegation in the business.

B. Kiara, who makes contracts with suppliers for the partnership.

C. Kevin, who does not have to make up for losses if a contract made by the partnership fails.

D. Nelson, who is required to use his personal wealth to pay for any debts incurred by the partnership.

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6. Who has unlimited liability for the debts and obligations of limited partnerships?

A. Limited partners

B. General partners

C. Shareholders

D. Board of directors

7. What is a characteristic of a corporation?

A. It is a separate legal entity.

B. It is dissolved after the death of any one shareholder.

C. Its shareholders have unlimited liability.

D. Its existence cannot be ended by the choice of its shareholders.

8. Identify the type of corporations in which there are thousands of shareholders and the shares are traded on national stock exchanges.

A. Not-for-profit corporations

B. Sole proprietorships

C. Limited partnerships

D. Publicly held corporations

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9. Alpha Corp. has very few shareholders and all of the shareholders belong to a single family. The shareholders are involved in the operations of the business and frequently make management decisions. What type of corporation does Alpha Corp. best represent?

A. A closely held corporation

B. A government-owned corporation

C. A private corporation

D. A publicly held corporation

10. Identify the true statement about limited liability companies.

A. They are created by federal and not state laws.

B. They are not separate legal entities like corporations.

C. They can be taxed as partnerships.

D. They are incorporated business entities.

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11. What is true about the formation of limited liability companies?

A. Doctors and lawyers most frequently form limited liability companies.

B. Owners can establish their limited liability company in only one state.

C. Owners of limited liability companies cannot conduct business in other states.

D. Sole proprietors cannot form limited liability companies in any state.

12. Delta Group is a business firm created by a team of doctors. The business was formed as per the state’s laws and is not taxed as a separate entity. The owners of the business are not personally liable for the losses, debts, and obligations of the firm. Identify the business form that is best illustrated in the scenario.

A. A limited liability company

B. A general partnership

C. A corporation

D. A limited liability partnership

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13. Nutristar is a soft drink manufacturing company that wishes to expand its business. The company has licensed another firm to manufacture its soft drinks and provided the firm with the necessary confidential information about manufacturing. The licensed company manufactures the soft drinks and distributes them. What type of franchise is best illustrated in this scenario?

A. A processing plant franchise

B. A distributorship franchise

C. An area franchise

D. A chain-style franchise

14. Identify the business arrangement that involves two business firms pooling resources to work on a single, mostly temporary, business project.

A. Franchise

B. Sole proprietorship

C. Merger

D. Joint venture

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15. Gamma Inc. has permitted another firm to operate under its name and use its trademarks and service marks. This firm can now use the intellectual property of Gamma Inc. to produce and distribute products. What business concept is best illustrated in this scenario?

A. Merging

B. Licensing

C. Divesting

D. Acquiring

16. Identify the true statement about negotiation as an alternative form of dispute resolution.

A. The final decision is always approved by a third party.

B. The two parties involved may be represented by attorneys.

C. The court does not permit the parties to negotiate before the trial.

D. The court has to approve an agreement before it is signed by the two parties.

17. Identify the form of alternative dispute resolution in which the two involved parties go to a neutral third party, who makes the final decision.

A. Arbitration

B. Negotiation

C. Mediation

D. Mini-trial

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 18. Synergy Inc. is involved in a dispute with Alpha Corp. Both companies have agreed to conduct a private proceeding involving representatives from each side. They have also appointed lawyers to present their arguments to these representatives. What type of alternative dispute resolution is most likely being used in this scenario?

A. Mediation

B. Arbitration

C. Mini-trial

D. Negotiation

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check.The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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