LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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1. What is true of the Foreign Commerce Clause in the context of the United States and foreign affairs?

  • It does not encompass state and local laws.
  • It gives the federal government exclusive power over foreign affairs.
  • It prohibits multilateral treaties.
  • It authorizes Congress to regulate commerce with foreign nations. 

2. The country of Elamia has added a new feature to its constitution. This feature gives power to the central government to enter into treaties with foreign countries. It does not give this power to state governments. In addition, this feature states that any local law that goes against a centrally-formed treaty will be canceled. Which part of the U.S. Constitution does Elamia’s new constitutional feature closely resemble?

  • Treaty Clause
  • Foreign Commerce Clause
  • Bilateral Treaty Clause
  • North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) 

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3. In the context of the United States and foreign affairs, treaties _____.

  • can only be formed between two nations
  • can only be formed only if sponsored by international organizations
  • are considered equal to lawmaking at the international level
  • can be formed even by local governments 

4. The International Court of Justice _____.

  • hears cases related to individuals and businesses
  • hears cases involving nations
  • is composed of five judges
  • is located in Geneva 

5. What is true in the context of the European Union (EU)?

  • The European Union Commission is independent of its member nations.
  • The Council of Ministers is composed of representatives from only five member countries.
  • All major decisions of the Council of Ministers require unanimity and no changes in the treaty are made based only on a majority vote.
  • All EU member countries have voted to use the euro. 

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6. The World Trade Organization (WTO) implements various rounds of negotiations among its membership. Through these rounds, it aims to achieve major reform of the international trading system. What is the fundamental objective of the Doha Round of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

  • To increase trade barriers
  • To resolve trade disputes arising from contracts
  • To improve trade prospects of developing countries
  • To issue panel reports in dispute cases 

7. What is the correct statement in the context of Hindu law?

  • Anglo-Hindu law was adopted in India, post its independence.
  • Classical Hindu Law rests on the works of private scholars.
  • Hindu law is not codified in any country.
  • Hindu law is predominantly based on court decisions. 

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8. Which international religious law is based on the ideology and theology of the Torah?

  • Islamic law
  • Jewish law
  • Hindu law
  • Christian law 

9. Ayub is an owner of a business that deals with the manufacture and sale of silk rugs. According to Islamic law, which of the following would most likely apply to Ayub, if riba was prohibited?

  • Ayub would be able to pay interest on loans.
  • Ayub would not be able to make any profits from the sale of his rugs.
  • Ayub would not be allowed to make any unjustified profits.
  • Ayub would not be permitted to earn profits from any services provided by him. 

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LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify an accurate statement about the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).

  • It prohibits the disclosure of nutrition information on food labels.
  • It only covers the quality of actual products and does not encompass packaging.
  • It prohibits the shipment, distribution, or sale of adulterated food.
  • It does not place liability on manufacturers or distributors for deceptive labelling. 

2. Which product is exempt from Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulation of cosmetics?

  • Household soap
  • Facial cleanser
  • Lip color
  • Eye shadow 

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3. Glitter is a clothing store advertising a week-long sale featuring low-price summer merchandise. Amy visits the store on the second day of the sale to buy discounted clothing. However, the store has very few of the low-price clothes remaining. When Amy inquires about the sale, she is, instead, directed to a section of very expensive clothing that is not on sale. Feeling pressurized by the salesperson to buy some of the expensive clothes, Amy ends up spending a lot of money at the store. What type of deceptive business practice is best illustrated in the scenario?

  • Credit and debt
  • Trade libel
  • Door-to-door sales
  • Bait and switch 

4. What is an environmental impact statement most likely to contain?

  • Guidelines for maintaining environmental standards for state governments
  • A cost-benefit analysis of a proposed federal action that might affect the environment
  • Annual environmental reports provided by state governments
  • Conservation proposals made by environmental experts outside the government 

5. Identify the federal act that was enacted to regulate the disposal of new hazardous wastes and empowers the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to regulate facilities that generate, treat, store, transport, and dispose hazardous wastes.

  • Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
  • Toxic Substances Control Act
  • National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
  • Nuclear Waste Policy Act 

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6. What is a true statement in the context of environmental laws?

  • The Clean Air Act encompasses only stationary sources of pollution and not automobiles.
  • States are responsible for the enforcement of air quality standards even though the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) sets the standards.
  • The primary task of enforcing the provisions of the Clean Water Act rests with the federal government and not state governments.
  • The federal Clean Water Act does not encompass the maintenance of wetlands. 

7. What is true of the per se rule according to Section 1 of the Sherman Act?

  • It holds that even reasonable restraints violate Section 1 of the Sherman Act.
  • It applies to restraints that are intrinsically anticompetitive.
  • It applies to cases where restraints have both pro- and anticompetitive effects.
  • It applies to cases where justifications and evidence can be considered to evaluate restraints. 

8. Envy, Bling, and Pattern are three established and well-known clothing manufacturers and sellers. They decide not to sell their clothes to Embellish, a clothing retail store. Which form of horizontal restraint does this scenario best exemplify?

  • Price fixing
  • Division of markets
  • Group boycotts
  • Conscious parallelisms 

9. Some forms of business and activities like labor unions and agricultural cooperatives are expressly exempt from the reach of antitrust laws in the rules enacted by Congress. What type of exemptions are these?

  • Statutory exemptions
  • Implied exemptions
  • State action exemptions
  • Organization exemptions 

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10. When is a court likely to apply the piercing the corporate veil doctrine?

  • When a corporation is not generating adequate profits because of a drop in sales
  • When a shareholder has been found to be misusing corporate assets
  • When shareholders are not adequately participating in the management of the corporation
  • When an employee has violated corporation rules 

11. What statement is true in the context of the board of directors of a corporation?

  • All members of the board should be officers of the corporation.
  • All members of the board should have the same set of specific qualifications.
  • Officers of other corporations can be elected as directors of the board.
  • Directors of the board should be residents of the state in which the corporation was incorporated. 

12. Riya is a corporate officer as well as a senior academic author at Derive Inc., a content management company. The company develops question banks and learning material for students. Riya, without permission from the company, starts her own content management company. Derive then recovers damages and profits from Riya. Which act of disloyalty does this scenario best exemplify in the context of fiduciary duties?

  • Making a secret profit
  • Usurping a corporate opportunity
  • Self-dealing
  • Competing with the corporation 

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13.What step can food manufacturers and processors take to avoid legal risks associated with the Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA)?

  • Exclude dietary information on packaging
  • Provide information about all the nutrients on packaging
  • Provide only point-of-purchase nutrition information
  • Exclude information about serving size on packaging 

14. According to Section 2 of the Clayton Act, in which of these scenarios is a seller most likely to face a legal risk?

  • Jeremy, a seller, uses price discrimination to meet a competitor’s price.
  • Alex, a seller, sells similar quality products to two customers at different prices around the same time.
  • Marcos, a seller, increases product prices because of increased costs of production and packaging.
  • Chang, a seller, offers a service to a particular customer for a reduced price. 

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15. What will help chemical industries avoid legal risks in the context of environmental laws?

  • Using special labeling for toxic substances
  • Avoiding testing of new chemicals
  • Meeting only the standards that are economically feasible
  • Adopting only technologically feasible disposal standards 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify the true statement about principal-agent and employer-employee agency relationships.

  • The employee in an employer-employee relationship is authorized to act on behalf of the employer in all business situations.
  • The principal in a principal-agent relationship has no authority over contracts made by the agent.
  • The employee in an employer-employee relationship can sign contracts on behalf of the employer.
  • The agent in a principal-agent relationship is authorized to act on behalf of the principal. 

2. In certain types of agencies, the parties involved do not sign a formal contract. However, it can be inferred from their conduct, that they are part of the agency. What is this kind of agency known as?

  • Implied agency
  • Express agency
  • Agency by ratification
  • Agency by contract 

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3. Beta Corp. and Woodrow LLC. have formed an agency. Both parties have agreed to the terms on which the agency will operate, and they have signed a contract. According to the terms of the contract, Woodrow, the agent, is authorized to act on behalf of Beta. Identify the type of agency illustrated in the scenario.

  • Agency by ratification
  • Express agency
  • Implied agency
  • Apparent agency 

4. What is true about disparate-treatment discrimination?

  • It involves discrimination against an entire protected class.
  • It involves discrimination against an individual belonging to a protected class. It refers to discrimination against an individual who
  • does not belong to a protected class or minority.
  • It occurs when a company does not follow racially neutral employment practices. 

5. What is true about color discrimination?

  • It can be justified by a bona fide occupational qualification.
  • It is essentially the same as discrimination based on race.
  • It is covered under Title VII.
  • It is prohibited but victims cannot recover damages even if discrimination is proved. 

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6. Identify the true statement about law in the United States, in the context of gender discrimination.

  • The laws that prohibit gender discrimination apply only to women.
  • The law does not specifically prohibit discrimination based on sexual orientation.
  • The law prohibits employment discrimination based on pregnancy.
  • The laws against gender discrimination do not prohibit quid pro quo sexual discrimination. 

7. Which of the following remedies can be granted by courts for violations of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

  • Reasonable attorney’s fees to the plaintiff
  • Reduction of salaries for all other employees in the plaintiff’s company
  • Unlimited power to the plaintiff to hire and terminate other employees in the company
  • Punitive damages in the amount requested by the plaintiff 

8. What remedy is a court likely to grant an employee if his or her employer is found to have violated the Equal Pay Act?

  • The employer will be required to lower the wages of other employees to bring in uniformity.
  • The employee will be eligible for a pay hike but will not be able to recover back pay.
  • The employee will be able to recover damages but will not be able to have his or her wages increased.
  • The employee will be able to recover back pay as well as liquidated damages. 

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9. What is true about the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)?

  • It enables plaintiffs to recover damages, even where bona fide occupational qualifications have been shown by their employers.
  • It allows employers to use employment advertisements that discriminate against applicants on the basis of age.
  • It ensures the reinstatement of plaintiffs, if they have been terminated on the basis of age.
  • It ensures that the wages of other employees are lowered. 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows: 

 LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

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1. What is true about the acceptance of a contract?

  • It is effective only once it has reached the offeror, whether or not it has been properly dispatched by the offeree.
  • It must not support the mirror image rule.
  • It must be an unequivocal acceptance, without conditions or exceptions.
  • It cannot be expressed with silence, even if the offeree has specified that silence means acceptance. 

2. Which element of a contract requires something of legal value to be provided in exchange for a promise?

  • Consideration
  • Objective intent
  • Agreement
  • Capacity 

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3. Jason, a 16-year old boy, enters into a contract with a businessperson to work on a construction project. According to the contract, Jason has to work long hours but will get paid a minimal amount because of his age. Jason, though unfamiliar with contracts, knows that the contract is not fair to him. He decides to cancel it. What gives Jason the right to void the contract?

  • Minor’s duty of restoration
  • Infancy doctrine
  • Adjudged insane
  • Covenant not to compete 

4. What will most likely happen when there is a material breach by one of the parties in a contract?

  • The breaching party will restate the express terms of the contract.
  • The contract will be discharged by both parties.
  • The nonbreaching party will terminate the contract and recover compensation.
  • The breaching party will affirm the contract and modify consideration terms. 

5. Venus LLC is a supplier for Synergy Corp. These companies have entered into a contract according to which, Venus will supply Synergy with a certain quantity of raw materials every month. In the month of May, Venus realizes that it cannot keep to the terms of the contract due to an unforeseeable worker strike. It informs Synergy of this delay much before the planned delivery date. What type of contract breach is illustrated in the scenario?

  • Minor breach
  • Anticipatory breach
  • Actual breach
  • Retrospective breach 

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6. Identify the type of damages that are awarded to a nonbreaching party when a breach of contract has occurred but has not resulted in any financial losses for the nonbreaching party.

  • Consequential damages
  • Penalty damages
  • Nominal damages
  • Special damages 

7. Identify the true statement about the legal protection of trade secrets.

  • The law allows individuals or companies the use of trade secrets discovered through reverse engineering.
  • The law does not place the obligation to protect trade secrets on the owners of the trade secrets.
  • The law mandates that all trade secrets be copyrighted.
  • The law does not categorize the stealing of a trade secret as a federal crime. 

8. What type of subject matter can be patented according to the U.S. federal government?

  • Scientific hypotheses and principles
  • Abstractions
  • Designs for a manufactured product
  • Obvious inventions 

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9. Caleb, a doctoral student, is sued by the author of a textbook for copyright infringement. The court rules that Caleb is not guilty since the content was used for the purpose of review in his research paper. In addition, he has written these paragraphs verbatim and placed them within quotes, citing appropriate references. What doctrine has the court most likely applied in this scenario?

  • Fair use doctrine
  • Res ipsa loquiter
  • Lanham doctrine
  • Misrepresentation doctrine 

10. Identify the true statement about personal property.

  • Personal property does not include items that are captured, purchased, or gifted.
  • Personal property can also be intangible.
  • Personal property includes only real property.
  • A single piece of personal property cannot be owned by two individuals at the same time. 

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11.Sandra is having her home renovated. Despite the specifications she has given the contractors, they add a door to separate her kitchen from her living room. Since Sandra likes the look, she does not ask them to change it. She also does not pay them extra, since the door was added by them, mistakenly. Which of the following terms best explains why Sandra has a right to the added feature without paying for it?

  • Accession
  • Confusion
  • Mislaid property
  • Gift inter vivos

12. Identify the situation in which two goods that look similar are commingled by owners who share ownership of the goods based on the proportion of their contributions.

  • Accession
  • Mislaid property
  • Possession
  • Confusion 

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13. What is true about real property, including land?

  • Real property includes property that is movable.
  • An owner of land has rights to the earth that lies beneath the land.
  • An owner of land owns the vegetation on the land only if the owner himself has cultivated the vegetation.
  • Real property does not encompass fixtures. 

14. Mary owns a piece of land and enjoys complete legal rights to the land, without any conditions or limitations. Her ownership does not end unless she transfers the land to a beneficiary. There are also no limitations on the inheritability of the land. Which type of freehold estate does Mary most likely own?

  • Fee simple defeasible
  • Life estate
  • Qualified fee
  • Fee simple absolute 

15. Gabriella and Priya own a piece of property together. The ownership terms state that in case of the death of one of the owners, the surviving owner will automatically gain complete ownership of the property. What kind of concurrent ownership is illustrated in this scenario?

  • Joint tenancy
  • Tenancy by the entirety
  • Community property
  • Tenancy in common 

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16. What is the best description of mislaid property?

  • It is real property that is discarded by the owner.
  • It is real property that has been constructed at the wrong place.
  • It is personal property that has been unintentionally forgotten by the owner.
  • It is personal property that has been lost by the owner. 

17. Identify the true statement about the ownership of mislaid, abandoned, and lost property.

  • The owner of lost property cannot claim ownership of it when it has been acquired by someone else.
  • The finder of abandoned property acquires ownership of the property even against the previous owner.
  • The finder of mislaid property can rightfully claim a share in the property from the owner.
  • The owner who abandons a piece of property will still be considered the rightful owner of the property, even if the property has been acquired by another individual. 

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18. Paulina purchased a rare and expensive gem when she was living in Mexico. Since then, she has relocated various times. Now, seven years later, Paulina cannot find the rare gem and does not know where she last saw it. After various attempts to find it, Paulina has decided not to look for the gem again. What will the rare gem most likely be categorized as in this scenario?

  • Real property
  • Abandoned property
  • Mislaid property
  • Lost property 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check  from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

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LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify the true statement about intentional torts.

  • A person can be sued for assault even if there was no actual physical contact.
  • A person can be sued for threatening future harm.
  • A person can be accused of battery only if there was direct physical contact.
  • A person cannot be sued for intending to injure one person but injuring another instead. 

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2. When does misappropriation of the right to publicity occur?

  • When private information about a person is made available to the public without the person’s consent
  • When the identity of an individual is used to make commercial gains without the individual’s permission
  • When false statements about an individual are made on a public platform
  • When a false document is signed using another person’s name 

3. Natalia has sued a media agency for publishing false statements about her in one of its widely circulated newspapers. Natalia has sought damages from the media agency for violating her reputation. Identify the tort that is illustrated in the scenario.

  • Misappropriation of right to publicity
  • Battery
  • Libel
  • False imprisonment 

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4. What is true about a negligence lawsuit in the context of unintentional torts?

  • The plaintiff does not need to prove that the defendant owed a duty of care.
  • The plaintiff does not need to prove that actual injury occurred.
  • The plaintiff should prove that the defendant’s negligence caused the injury.
  • The plaintiff needs to prove that the negligence occurred in the profession of the defendant. 

5. What does proximate cause mean?

  • The negligent person or entity is completely responsible for all the damages caused by the negligence.
  • The plaintiff has the right to decide the extent of the negligent party’s liability.
  • The law limits the liability that the negligent party needs to assume for the consequences.
  • The compensation for damages is decided based on the severity of the injury. 

6. To which of the following scenarios would res ipsa loquitur be most applicable?

  • Laura experienced extreme emotional distress after she watched her father get severely injured in an accident.
  • Jason was severely injured when a roller-coaster crashed during a ride in an amusement park.
  • Paulina was seriously injured in a car accident because she was driving under the influence.
  • Samir lost some of his important documents because of a negligent accountant. 

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7. Identify the true statement about the doctrine of strict liability.

  • It allows a plaintiff to recover damages from a defendant if the latter’s conduct has been intentional.
  • It requires a defendant to prove that a plaintiff has breached the duty of due care.
  • It can be disclaimed by wholesalers and retail dealers.
  • It also covers informal sales and transactions. 

8. When does a negligence tort occur in the context of product liability?

  • When a manufacturer intentionally hides a defect of a product
  • When a lessor knowingly provides false information about the quality of a product
  • When a seller breaches the duty of due care while selling a product
  • When a manufacturer makes products under a false identity 

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9. Miranda has filed a lawsuit against a cellphone company that sold her a phone with defective features. Miranda has filed the case because she believes that the company intentionally withheld information about the poor features of the product. It was these defective features that caused Miranda’s hand injury. Identify the product liability tort that would best apply to this scenario.

  • Misrepresentation
  • Negligence
  • Libel
  • Res ipsa loquitur 

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10. What is the most valid defense for a product liability lawsuit?

  • The defendant claims that he or she was not aware of the possible injury that the product could cause.
  • The defendant claims that the product was not modified by the plaintiff after it was bought.
  • The defendant claims that the product was used in an abnormal and wrong manner by the plaintiff.
  • The defendant claims that the product was harmful because of improper packaging. 

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11. In a product liability lawsuit, a seller was excused from paying damages to a customer for injuries caused by a defective product. This was because a number of years had passed since the seller had sold the product to the customer. What statute can best be applied to this scenario to protect the rights of the seller?

  • Statute of limitations
  • Statute of proximate cause
  • Statute of repose
  • Statute of contractor defense 

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12. In which case can the doctrine of comparative negligence be used?

  • When part of the plaintiff’s injuries have been caused by the carelessness of the plaintiff
  • When the plaintiff, out of negligence, takes action against a defendant, several years after the injury has been caused?
  • When the defendant claims that the plaintiff was aware of the risks of using the product in question
  • When the defendant proves that he or she sold the product several years prior to the injury 

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This article covers the topic for the University of Phoenix LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:  

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 2 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 3 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 4 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 5 Knowledge Check

LAW 531 Week 6 Knowledge Check

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.UopStudents.com

LAW 531 Week 1 Knowledge Check

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1. Identify an accurate statement about a sole proprietorship.

A. It is a form of business that is seldom found in the United States.

B. It is a form of business that has only one owner.

C. It is a separate legal entity, distinct from an owner.

D. It is a business form in which the owner enjoys limited liability.

2. Sara and Cilia run a café together. They share ownership of and liability for the café and have come to an agreement about how the profits from the cafe should be divided between them. If the café runs into debt, both Sara and Celia are responsible for the debt.

What form of business is best demonstrated in this scenario?

A. A sole proprietorship

B. A corporation

C. A general partnership

D. A limited liability company

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3. What criterion under the Uniform Partnership Act (UPA) must be met by a business, for it to qualify as a general partnership?

A. The objective of the partnership should be to create profits.

B. One of the owners must be willing to assume completely liability of the business.

C. The partnership should not involve more than two persons.

D. Only one owner should take up the legal responsibility of contracts.

4. What is true about a limited partnership?

A. All the partners are personally liable for partnership debts.

B. The partnership cannot involve more than two individuals.

C. The general partners do not invest capital or participate in the management of the business.

D. The limited partners are not personally liable for partnership debts beyond the amount invested by them.

5. Who among the following is most likely to be a limited partner in a limited partnership?

A. David, who takes up the task of work delegation in the business.

B. Kiara, who makes contracts with suppliers for the partnership.

C. Kevin, who does not have to make up for losses if a contract made by the partnership fails.

D. Nelson, who is required to use his personal wealth to pay for any debts incurred by the partnership.

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6. Who has unlimited liability for the debts and obligations of limited partnerships?

A. Limited partners

B. General partners

C. Shareholders

D. Board of directors

7. What is a characteristic of a corporation?

A. It is a separate legal entity.

B. It is dissolved after the death of any one shareholder.

C. Its shareholders have unlimited liability.

D. Its existence cannot be ended by the choice of its shareholders.

8. Identify the type of corporations in which there are thousands of shareholders and the shares are traded on national stock exchanges.

A. Not-for-profit corporations

B. Sole proprietorships

C. Limited partnerships

D. Publicly held corporations

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9. Alpha Corp. has very few shareholders and all of the shareholders belong to a single family. The shareholders are involved in the operations of the business and frequently make management decisions. What type of corporation does Alpha Corp. best represent?

A. A closely held corporation

B. A government-owned corporation

C. A private corporation

D. A publicly held corporation

10. Identify the true statement about limited liability companies.

A. They are created by federal and not state laws.

B. They are not separate legal entities like corporations.

C. They can be taxed as partnerships.

D. They are incorporated business entities.

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11. What is true about the formation of limited liability companies?

A. Doctors and lawyers most frequently form limited liability companies.

B. Owners can establish their limited liability company in only one state.

C. Owners of limited liability companies cannot conduct business in other states.

D. Sole proprietors cannot form limited liability companies in any state.

12. Delta Group is a business firm created by a team of doctors. The business was formed as per the state’s laws and is not taxed as a separate entity. The owners of the business are not personally liable for the losses, debts, and obligations of the firm. Identify the business form that is best illustrated in the scenario.

A. A limited liability company

B. A general partnership

C. A corporation

D. A limited liability partnership

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13. Nutristar is a soft drink manufacturing company that wishes to expand its business. The company has licensed another firm to manufacture its soft drinks and provided the firm with the necessary confidential information about manufacturing. The licensed company manufactures the soft drinks and distributes them. What type of franchise is best illustrated in this scenario?

A. A processing plant franchise

B. A distributorship franchise

C. An area franchise

D. A chain-style franchise

14. Identify the business arrangement that involves two business firms pooling resources to work on a single, mostly temporary, business project.

A. Franchise

B. Sole proprietorship

C. Merger

D. Joint venture

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15. Gamma Inc. has permitted another firm to operate under its name and use its trademarks and service marks. This firm can now use the intellectual property of Gamma Inc. to produce and distribute products. What business concept is best illustrated in this scenario?

A. Merging

B. Licensing

C. Divesting

D. Acquiring

16. Identify the true statement about negotiation as an alternative form of dispute resolution.

A. The final decision is always approved by a third party.

B. The two parties involved may be represented by attorneys.

C. The court does not permit the parties to negotiate before the trial.

D. The court has to approve an agreement before it is signed by the two parties.

17. Identify the form of alternative dispute resolution in which the two involved parties go to a neutral third party, who makes the final decision.

A. Arbitration

B. Negotiation

C. Mediation

D. Mini-trial

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 18. Synergy Inc. is involved in a dispute with Alpha Corp. Both companies have agreed to conduct a private proceeding involving representatives from each side. They have also appointed lawyers to present their arguments to these representatives. What type of alternative dispute resolution is most likely being used in this scenario?

A. Mediation

B. Arbitration

C. Mini-trial

D. Negotiation

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LAW 531 Final Exam Answers

LAW 531 Final Exam

1. What defense can an employer use to a charge of sexual harassment?      

  • The harassed employee was not made aware of the company’s antiharassment policies.
  • The harassed employee took advantage of the preventive measures provided by the company but still could not avoid being harassed.
  • The employer does not have any complaint mechanisms for employees who are harassed.
  • The employer used reasonable care to prevent and correct the sexually harassing behavior. 

2. Choose the correct statement about the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).          

  • It is exclusively created to regulate air pollution standards.
  • It has the power to initiate judicial trials in case of violation of environmental laws.
  • It does not enforce environmental laws related to the protection of wetlands.
  • It can enforce federal environmental regulations but cannot make regulations on its own.

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3. What is “riba” in the context of Islamic law?         

  • It is a compilation of decisions of the prophet.
  • It refers to the making of unearned profits.
  • It is the doctrine of proper behavior.
  • It refers to independent reasoning. 

4. The state of Oriel, Selenasia, enacts a law that imposes a 40 percent tax on automobiles that are made outside of Selenasia and sold in the state. However, Oriel does not impose this tax on Selenasian-made automobiles that are sold in Oriel. This scenario resembles a violation of which clause of the U.S. Constitution?           

  • The Multilateral Treaty Clause
  • The Bilateral Treaty Clause
  • The Foreign Commerce Clause
  • The Treaty Clause 

5. Teledor Inc. and Comunika Inc. are two competing cellphone manufacturers. Jane, a customer at Teledor, is told by an employee that Comunika phones have weak battery back-up and are very prone to damage. The employee makes these remarks even though he knows that they are completely false. Jane, who has been contemplating between Teledor and Comunika, is influenced by what she hears and purchases a Teledor phone. What kind of intentional tort should be used against Teledor in this scenario?         

  • Malicious prosecution
  • Disparagement
  • Battery
  • Appropriation

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6. Identify an accurate statement about res ipsa loquitur, a special negligence doctrine.    

  • It applies to cases in which injuries that occurred were not foreseeable.
  • It applies to cases in which the plaintiff also contributed to the negligence.
  • It applies to cases in which it can be assumed that the defendant was in control of the situation in which the injuries occurred.
  • It requires the plaintiff to demonstrate how exactly the situation arose out of the negligence of the plaintiff. 

7. Identify an accurate statement about the doctrine of comparative negligence.      

  • A person who is partially responsible for causing his or her own injuries cannot file a suit against the other party who partly caused the injuries.
  • A plaintiff who is partially responsible for causing his or her own injuries cannot recover damages from the defendant.
  • A plaintiff who is partially responsible for causing his or her own injuries can recover a proportion of the damages from the defendant.
  • A plaintiff who is partially responsible for causing his or her own injuries can recover all the damages from the defendant. 

8. What is true about the applicability of strict liability?      

  • It cannot be applied to products that are defectively manufactured.
  • It can be applied to sellers who fail to warn of generally known dangers.
  • It can be applied to products that are defectively packaged.
  • It cannot be applied to products that were not supported by sufficient instructions. 

9. Which statement best describes an injunction as an equitable remedy?     

  • It requires a breaching party to pay damages to the injured party for both actual and foreseeable losses.
  • It orders a breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract.
  • It prohibits a party from performing a particular act that may cause injury to another party.
  • It allows a court to change the terms of a contract to make them true to the parties’ intentions.

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10. Identify the true statement in the context of a franchise arrangement.        

  • The franchisee can sell the franchisor’s products but can never manufacture them.
  • The franchisor licenses the franchisee to use the former’s trademarks.
  • The franchisee can manufacture the franchisor’s products but can never distribute them directly to consumers.
  • The franchisor is essentially the owner of the franchisee. 

11. Identify an accurate statement about distributional interest in the context of limited liability companies (LLCs).           

  • A transferee of a distributional interest receives all distributions from the LLC to which the transferor belonged.
  • A member’s distributional interest can be transferred completely, or partly.
  • A transferee of a distributional interest automatically becomes a member of the LLC.
  • A member who transfers his or her distributional interest will no longer be liable for the debts and obligations of the LLC. 

12. What is true about consideration in the context of contracts?          

  • It also encompasses performances and services.
  • It is exclusively in the form of tangible payments such as money or property.
  • It is typically included in gift promises.
  • It is an optional component of a written contract that parties can choose to omit. 

13. What does a current plaintiff need to prove to succeed in a malicious prosecution lawsuit?  

  • The original plaintiff did not initiate the original lawsuit.
  • The original lawsuit had probable cause.
  • The original lawsuit was initiated without malice.
  • The current plaintiff suffered injury because of the original lawsuit.

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14. In which case will a limited partner in a limited partnership have liability that extends beyond the contributions made by him or her?      

  • When the limited partner provides personal guarantee for a loan taken by the partnership
  • When one of the general partners withdraws from the limited partnership
  • When the limited partnership is involved in a tort and needs to pay compensation as ordered by the court
  • When the limited partnership incurs severe losses 

15. Identify a difference between publicly held and closely held corporations.          

  • Shareholders of publicly held corporations participate in management activities; shareholders of closely held corporations do not.
  • Closely held corporations are large; publicly held corporations are comparatively smaller.
  • Publicly held corporations have many shareholders; closely held corporations have fewer shareholders.
  • Closely held corporations trade their shares on organized security markets; publicly held corporations do not. 

16. Identify a difference between treasury shares and outstanding shares in a corporation.         

  • Outstanding shares are the ones that are repurchased by the corporation; treasury shares are not.
  • Outstanding shares have the right to vote; treasury shares do not.
  • Treasury shares are issued by the corporation; outstanding shares are not.
  • Treasury shares cannot be reissued; outstanding shares can be.

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17. What is true about the scope of Good Samaritan laws in the context of special negligence doctrines?   

  • They apply to professionals like lawyers and architects.
  • They protect professionals from liability for their ordinary and gross negligence.
  • They apply to medical health professionals.
  • They protect manufacturers and distributors from product liability. 

18. Quenchers Inc., a heath drink manufacturer, launches a new product called Sprint. The packaging of this drink also includes a statement that says “Fifty times healthier than Green.” Green is a product of Booster Inc., another health drink manufacturer. Quenchers has no research data to back this claim. What type of unfair business practice is illustrated in the scenario?         

  • Deceptive advertising
  • Copyright infringement
  • Bait and switch
  • Restraint of trade 

19. What statement is true about the powers of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the context of drug regulation?       

  • The FDA can only regulate the manufacture of prescription drugs.
  • The FDA’s powers are restricted to the regulation of the sale of drugs.
  • The FDA is not authorized to revoke licenses of drugs that are in use.
  • The FDA has the authority to license new drugs.

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20. Choose the correct statement about limited liability partnerships (LLPs). 

  • They should have one or more general partners personally liable for the debts and obligations of the partnerships.
  • They do not get flow-through tax benefits.
  • They cannot have partners who are professionals such as doctors or lawyers.
  • They are created by state and not federal laws.

21. Identify an accurate statement about the Treaty Clause in the context of the United States and foreign affairs.        

  • It states that a treaty can be formed when one-third of Senate members agree to it.
  • It states that state governments can pass laws that contradict treaties signed by the federal government.
  • It states that the U.S. president is the agent of the United States in dealing with foreign nations.
  • It states that local state governments can also enter into treaties with foreign nations. 

22. What is true of the Economic Espionage Act?   

  • It criminalizes the theft of trade secrets through the use of the Internet.
  • It criminalizes the discovery of trade secrets through reverse engineering.
  • It provides federal protection exclusively to trademarks and service marks.
  • It relieves business owners of the obligation to protect their intellectual property.

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23. What is true of the necessary elements of an environmental impact statement (EIS) according to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)?      

  • It must mention the environmentalist parties that challenged the proposed action in court.
  • It must contain a cost-benefit analysis of the proposed federal action and alternative actions.
  • It must not refer to the expert opinions of engineers, geologists, or other professionals.
  • It must not mention or describe any alternate actions to the proposed federal action. 

24. Which statement is true about the different types of agency relationships?         

  • An employer-employee relationship involves complete transfer of authority to the employee.
  • A principal-agent relationship involves hiring an employee to enter into contracts on behalf of the principal.
  • A principal-agent relationship involves assigning an employee a specific physical task to perform.
  • An employer-employee relationship involves hiring an employee to act as an agent of the employer. 

25. Identify an accurate statement about the Equal Pay Act.        

  • The act states that the employer can lower the wages of employees to remedy a wage disparity.
  • The act states that wages may differ when shift differences are involved.
  • The act exclusively covers federal workers.
  • The act does not encompass private-sector employees. 

26. What is true of a vertical merger?  

  • It combines the operations of two manufacturers in the same market.
  • It creates increased market share.
  • It combines the businesses of a supplier and a customer.
  • It combines the operations of suppliers in the same market.

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27. Tanya and Amit, married for five years, have filed for divorce. They are being assisted by Rebecca in reaching a settlement. Rebecca is a retired judge, who meets with them together, and individually, to discuss the strengths and weaknesses of each of their cases. Which alternative dispute resolution method does this scenario best exemplify?  

  • Mini-trial
  • Judicial referee
  • Mediation
  • Arbitration 

28. What is true about Jewish law?      

  • It is based on the teachings in the Vedas.
  • It is not followed anymore in Jewish home countries.
  • It includes rules for religious and political aspects of life.
  • It excludes doctrines related to marriage and inheritance. 

29. How does the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act, enacted in 1972, extend environmental protection to the oceans?      

  • By requiring the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to create a list of toxic air pollutants
  • By removing marine sanctuaries in ocean waters
  • By requiring industries to obtain a permit for dumping wastes into ocean waters
  • By requiring industries to incur the clean up costs for contaminations caused by them

Click here to download Complete Answers of Law 531 Final Exam

30. Which statement about personal property is true?       

  • It exclusively refers to tangible property.
  • It can be owned only by one person.
  • It refers to property that is movable.
  • It exclusively encompasses real estate property. 

31. What is the primary function of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?    

  • To create free trade zones for member countries and thereby bring them together
  • To provide long-term loans to developing countries
  • To ensure smooth and free trade flow among member countries by settling disputes
  • To promote international fiscal stability by providing temporary monetary assistance to member countries 

32. What is a disadvantage of a sole proprietorship?         

  • The owner has to take up legal responsibility for any torts committed in the business.
  • The process of forming a sole proprietorship involves many costs.
  • The sole proprietorship is difficult to dissolve as many shareholders are involved.
  • The owner is required to present several legal documents to obtain federal approval to start the business.

To download the complete paper click Law 531 Complete Course

33. What must a complainant prove in a case of disparate-treatment discrimination?          

  • The employer cited behavioral reasons for rejecting the complainant.
  • The employer rejected the complainant despite the latter having the required qualifications.
  • The employer sought applications from people with qualifications better than the complainant’s.
  • The employer rejected others with the same qualifications. 

34. What is true about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 in the context of gender discrimination?      

  • It covers discrimination based on sexual orientation.
  • It does not prohibit discrimination based on pregnancy-related medical conditions.
  • It covers only women.
  • It excludes sexual harassment. 

35. What is a gift causa mortis?

  • A gift that is made in anticipation of theft.
  • A gift that cannot be revoked.
  • A gift that is made in anticipation of death.
  • A gift that is made involuntarily. 

36. Identify a difference between tenancy by the entirety and community property as forms of concurrent ownership.    

  • Tenancy by the entirety allows a spouse to transfer his or her interest without the other spouse’s consent; community property does not.
  • Tenancy by the entirety does not grant the rights of survivorship; community property does.
  • Tenancy by the entirety passes the deceased person’s complete property to the survivor; community property passes only one-half of the property to the survivor.
  • Tenancy by the entirety applies to married couples; community property does not apply to married couples.

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37. Waves, Shimmer, and Mist are manufacturers and sellers of beauty products. Each of these companies independently decides not to sell its products to Redefine, a cosmetic retailer. Which form of vertical restraint does this scenario best exemplify?       

  • Group parallelism
  • Conscious parallelism
  • Malicious boycott
  • Product boycott 

38. Identify the true statement about the rights and duties of partners in a general partnership.   

  • A partner in a general partnership has the right to have the transactions of another partner reviewed by a court.
  • A partner in a general partnership has the right to compete with the partnership by opening another business by himself or herself.
  • A partner in a general partnership has the right to sue the partnership or another partner at law.
  • A partner in a general partnership has the right to use the facilities of the business for personal use. 

39. Which statement about strict liability is true?     

  • It does not protect bystanders and other individuals who were affected by defective products.
  • It does not require a contract to be present between the plaintiff and the defendant.
  • It places liability only on manufacturers and not sellers.
  • It holds the defendant liable only to the purchaser of a defective product.

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40. What is the scope of coverage of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? 

  • It applies to state and local governments.
  • It applies to labor unions with five or more members.
  • It applies to employers with five or more employees.
  • It applies to Native American tribes. 

41. Identify an accurate statement about Hindu Law.         

  • It is based on the teachings of the Torah.
  • It currently encompasses doctrines related to marriage.
  • It includes teachings of rabbis.
  • It is currently a combination of classical Hindu law and common law.

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42. Felicia Carter, a famous singer, finds her poster on a billboard of a music academy. Felicia sues the academy because it did not inform her or seek permission to use her poster. What kind of intentional tort does this scenario best exemplify? 

  • Disparagement
  • Appropriation
  • Invasion of the right to privacy
  • Defamation of character 

43. Identify a difference between the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.       

  • The IMF is funded by contributions of developed countries; the World Bank is funded by developing countries.
  • The IMF has its headquarters in Washington, DC; the World Bank in The Hague, the Netherlands.
  • The IMF has more than 180 member countries; the World Bank has 60 member countries.
  • The IMF grants short-term loans to member countries; the World Bank grants long-term loans to developing countries. 

44. Tracy goes to a shopping mall, and she unknowingly drops her identity card. After a while, she realizes that the card is missing and starts looking for it. The card is found by Ben who is also at the mall. Ben decides to contact Tracy and return her identity card. In this scenario, what kind of property would Tracy’s identity card be?      

  • Abandoned property
  • Real property
  • Mislaid property
  • Lost property 

45. Which scenario best exemplifies race discrimination?

  • Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sandeep because he has more work experience than Sarah.
  • Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sarah because she has better qualifications and her resume is more impressive.
  • Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sarah because Sarah is of the same ethnic group as the recruiter.
  • Sarah and Sandeep apply for the same post at Diadem Inc. The recruiter selects Sandeep because he believes that a man would suit the job role better.

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46. Identify a characteristic of an implied agency.   

  • The agency relationship can be deemed void only with the consent of both the parties.
  • The agreement of the agency relationship is in written form.
  • The agency relationship is formed after both the parties have agreed upon common terms.
  • The degree of authority of an agent is defined by the circumstances and facts of a particular scenario. 

47. Identify an accurate statement about the World Trade Organization (WTO).         

  • It has 180 member nations.
  • It has its headquarters in Washington, DC.
  • It has a seven-member appellate body that hears appeals.
  • It has a five-member panel that hears trade disputes. 

48. Identify the true statement about the ownership of mislaid property.          

  • The finder of mislaid property gets complete ownership of the property against the owner of the premises in which the property was mislaid.
  • The original owner cannot reclaim the ownership of mislaid property if it has been in the possession of someone else.
  • The finder of mislaid property can legally acquire partial ownership of the property from the original owner.
  • The owner of the region where the property was mislaid is automatically obliged to take care of the property until the rightful owner finds it. 

49. What is true about a quitclaim deed?        

  • It is most frequently used among sellers and buyers.
  • It provides maximum protection to the grantee as it involves complete transfer of ownership to him or her.
  • It does not include an affirmation that the grantor owns the property that is being transferred.
  • It is exclusively used during the sale of personal property and cannot be used during the sale of real property.

To download the complete paper click Law 531 Complete Course

50. What is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?     

  • An employer cannot conduct medical examinations of an employee post employment.
  • An employer can ask a job applicant about the existence, nature, and severity of his or her disability.
  • An employer can inquire about a job applicant’s ability to perform job-related functions in terms of health.
  • An employer can conduct preemployment medical examinations. 

51. Dany purchases eye drops manufactured by a pharmaceutical company. She unknowingly leaves the bottle of eye drops on her living room table. Dany’s two-year-old daughter finds the bottle and opens it easily. Dany realizes that the seal on the bottle was not strong enough and was removed far too easily. What type of product defect is illustrated in the scenario?   

  • Inadequate instructions
  • Failure to warn
  • Defect in packaging
  • Defect in manufacture

52. Tanvi was the breaching party in a breach of contract lawsuit. The court ordered Tanvi to pay a certain amount of damages to the plaintiff. However, Tanvi refused to pay these damages. The court has now issued a writ that orders the county sheriff to seize and auction the property owned by Tanvi to pay the damages owed to the plaintiff. In this scenario, what kind of writ has been issued in the context of remedies for a breach of contract?         

  • Writ of attachment
  • Writ of quo-warranto
  • Writ of garnishment
  • Writ of payment

Click here to download Complete Answers of LAW 531 Final Exam Answers

53. What is true of the Sherman Act?  

  • It expressly outlaws monopolies.
  • It does not include criminal sanctions.
  • It excludes predatory pricing.
  • It prohibits illegal restraints of trade. 

54. The country of Tahomia entered into an agreement with the federal government of Batang to reduce trade barriers between the two countries. However, one state in Tahomia has certain laws that prohibit the sale of Batang-made products. According to the constitution of Tahomia, such rules made by the state will automatically become invalid. This scenario closely resembles which clause of the U.S. Constitution?           

  • The Convention Clause
  • The Treaty Clause
  • The Bilateral Treaty Clause
  • The Foreign Clause 

55. Identify the true statement about the formation of a limited partnership.    

  • The contributions made by the partners in a limited partnership do not have to be disclosed.
  • Limited partnerships can be formed informally among general and limited partners.
  • Limited partnerships are required to disclose the nature of their business to legal entities.
  • The name of a limited partnership should always include the surname of the limited partner. 

56. Tamara is a content developer at Moon Loop Inc., a content management company. Her job profile involves describing diagrams and flowcharts. She is not allowed to make decisions or sign agreements on behalf of the company. In this scenario, what agency relationship most likely exists between Tamara and Moon Loop Inc.?          

  • Principal-employer relationship
  • Principal-agent relationship
  • Employee-agent relationship
  • Employer-employee relationship

Click here to download Complete Answers of Law 531 Final Exam

57. What is true of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) as a United Nations agency?      

  • It has its headquarters in The Hague, the Netherlands.
  • It does not provide loans to member countries.
  • It is funded by contributions of member countries.
  • It was established before the Great Depression of the 1930s. 

58. StacyMiller Publishers and Scriblotts are two of the largest publishing houses in Paramond. They decide to merge for mutual benefit. What kind of merger does this scenario best exemplify?           

  • Horizontal merger
  • Vertical merger
  • Upward merger
  • Conglomerate Merger 

59. Cetria Inc. has been contracted to manufacture fighter jets for the U.S. Army, following specific guidelines and requirements. After a week of flying the first set of delivered jets, the jets start deteriorating and even cause injuries to the fighter pilots. However, Cetria cannot be held liable for these defects and injuries. What defense is most likely to protect Cetria from liability?       

  • Government contractor defense
  • Generally known danger defense
  • Assumption of risk defense
  • Supervening event defense

Click here to download Complete Answers of UOP LAW 531 Final Exam Questions

60. Identify an accurate statement about shareholders.    

  • They elect the board of directors of a corporation.
  • They handle the daily operations of a corporation.
  • They have several management duties.
  • They are agents of a corporation. 

About Author

This article covers the topic for the University Of Phoenix Law 531 Final Exam The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of Law 531 Final Exam from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:

Law 531 Final Exam

For further information on the above topics you can always visit the website www.uopstudents.com

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